Quantcast
Channel: Study Rankers
Viewing all 6196 articles
Browse latest View live

NCERT Solutions for Class 10th: Ch 3 Metals and Non-metals Science

$
0
0

NCERT Solutions for Class 10th: Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals Science

Chapter 3 of Class 10 Science Metals and nonmetals contains Properties of metals and non-metals; Reactivity series; Formation and properties of  ionic compounds; Basic metallurgical processes; Corrosion and its prevention. Here, we have provided NCERT Solutions for Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals which will help the students in learning basics of the lessons. Our experts have tried the best to prepare the questions and answers according to the latest pattern of CBSE. 
 Study Reference for Class 10 Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals

    In Text Questions

    Page No: 40

    1. Give an example of a metal which
    (i) is a liquid at room temperature.
    ► Mercury

    (ii) can be easily cut with a knife.
    ► Sodium

    (iii) is the best conductor of heat.
    ► Silver

    (iv) is a poor conductor of heat.
    ► Mercury and Lead

    2.Explain the meanings of malleable and ductile.

    Answer

    Malleable:Substances that can be beaten into thin sheets are called malleable. For example, most of the metals are malleable.
    Ductile: Substances that can be drawn into thin wires are called ductile. For example, most of the metals are ductile.

    Page no: 46

    1. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?

    Answer

    Sodium is high reactive element. If it is kept in open it can explosively react with oxygen to catch fire. Hence to prevent accidental damage sodium is immersed in kerosene oil.

    2. Write equations for the reactions of
    (i) iron with steam
    (ii) calcium and potassium with water

    Answer

    (i) 3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (aq) + 4H2 (g)

    (ii) Ca (s) + 2H2O (l) → Ca(OH)2 (aq) + H2 (g) + Heat
    2K (s) + 2H2O (l) → 2KOH (aq) + H2 (g) + Heat

    3. Samples of four metals A, B, C and D were taken and added to the following solution one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows.
    Metal
    Iron (II) sulphate
    Cooper (II) sulphate
    Zinc sulphate
    Silver nitrate
    A.
    No reaction
    Displacement
    B.
    Displacement
    No reaction
    C.
    No reaction
    No reaction
    No reaction
    Displacement
    D.
    No reaction
    No reaction
    No reaction
    No reaction

    Use the Table above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C and D.
    (i) Which is the most reactive metal?
    (ii) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulphate?
    (iii) Arrange the metals A, B, C and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.

    Answer

    (i) B is most reactive metal.
    (ii) B will displace copper from copper sulphate.
    (iii) Arrangement of metals in the order of decreasing reactivity B>A>C>D.

    4. Which gas is produced when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal? Write the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.

    Answer

    Hydrogen gas is evolved when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal.
    When iron reacts with dilute H2SO4, iron (II) sulphate with the evolution of hydrogen gas is formed.
    Fe (s) + H2SO4 (aq) → FeSO4 (aq) + H2 (g)

    5. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulphate? Write the chemical reaction that takes place.

    Answer

    When zinc is added to iron (II) sulphate then it will displace the iron from iron sulphate solution as shown in the following chemical reaction.Zn (s) + FeSO4 (aq) → ZnSO4 (aq) + Fe (s)

    Page No: 49

    1. (i) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen and magnesium.
    (ii) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
    (iii) What are the ions present in these compounds?

    Answer

    (i) The representation of elements with valence electrons as dots around the elements is referred to as electron-dot structure for elements.

    (ii)

    (iii) The ions present in Na2O are Na+ and O2- ions and in MgO are Mg2+ and O2- ions.

    2. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?

    Answer

    Ionic compounds have strong electrostatic forces of attraction between the ions. Therefore, it requires a lot of energy to overcome these forces. That is why ionic compounds have high melting points.

    Page No: 53

    1. Define the following terms.
    (i) Mineral (ii) Ore (iii) Gangue

    Answer

    (i) Mineral: The naturally occurring compounds of elements are known as Mineral.
    (ii) Ore: Minerals from which metals can be extracted profitably are known as ores.
    (iii) Gangue: The impurities present in the ore such as sand, rocks etc are non as gangue.

    2. Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state.

    Answer

    The metals at the bottom of the reactivity series are mostly found in free state. For example: gold, silver, and platinum.

    3. What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?

    Answer

    A metal can be extracted from its oxide by the process of reduction.

    Page No: 55

    1. Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium and copper were heated with the following metals.

    Metal
    Zinc
    Magnesium
    Copper
    Zinc oxide
    -
    -
    -
    Magnesium oxide
    -
    -
    -
    Copper oxide
    -
    -
    -

    In which cases will you find displacement reactions taking place?

    Answer

    Metal
    Zinc
    Magnesium
    Copper
    Zinc oxide
    No reaction
    Displacement
    No reaction
    Magnesium oxide
    No reaction
    No reaction
    No reaction
    Copper oxide
    Displacement
    Displacement
    No reaction

    2. Which metals do not corrode easily?

    Answer

    Metals which have low reactivity such as silver, gold does not corrode easily.

    3. What are alloys?

    Answer

    An alloy is the homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or metals and non metals. For example brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.

    Page No: 56

    Excercise

    1. Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?
    (a) NaCl solution and copper metal
    (b) MgCl2solution and aluminium metal
    (c) FeSO4solution and silver metal
    (d) AgNO3solution and copper metal.
    ► (d) AgNO3solution and copper metal.

    2. Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting?
    (a) Applying grease
    (b) Applying paint
    (c) Applying a coating of zinc
    (d) all of the above.
    ► (c) Applying a coating of zinc

    3. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound with a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be
    (a) calcium
    (b) carbon
    (c) silicon
    (d) iron
    ► (a) calcium

    4. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because
    (a) zinc is costlier than tin.
    (b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin.
    (c) zinc is more reactive than tin.
    (d) zinc is less reactive than tin.
    ► (c) zinc is more reactive than tin.

    5. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires and a switch.
    (a) How could you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-metals?
    (b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing between metals and non-metals.

    Anwer

    (a) With the hammer, we can beat the sample and if it can be beaten into thin sheets (that is, it is malleable), then it is a metal otherwise a non-metal. Similarly, we can use the battery, bulb, wires, and a switch to set up a circuit with the sample. If the sample conducts electricity, then it is a metal otherwise a non-metal.

    (b) The above tests are useful in distinguishing between metals and non-metals as these are based on the physical properties. No chemical reactions are involved in these tests.

    6. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of amphoteric oxides.

    Answer

    Those oxides that behave as both acidic and basic oxides are called amphoteric oxides.
    Examples: aluminium oxide (Al2O3), zinc oxide (ZnO)

    7. Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids, and two metals which will not.

    Answer

    Iron and aluminium will displace hydrogen from dilute acids as they more reactive then hydrogen. Mercury and copper cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids as they are less reactive than hydrogen.

    Page No: 57

    8. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what would you take as the anode, the cathode and the electrolyte?

    Answer

    In the electrolytic refining of a metal M:
    Anode → Impure metal M
    Cathode → Thin strip of pure metal M
    Electrolyte → Solution of salt of the metal M

    9. Pratyush took sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube over it, as shown in figure below.
    (a) What will be the action of gas on
    (i) dry litmus paper?
    (ii) moist litmus paper?


    (b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.

    Answer

    (a)
    (i) There will be no action on dry litmus paper.

    (ii) The colour of litmus paper will turn red because sulphur is a non-metal and the oxides of non-metal are acidic in nature.

    (b) S (s) + O2(g) → SO2 (g)

    10. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.

    Answer

    Two ways to prevent the rusting of iron are:
    → Oiling, greasing, or painting: By applying oil, grease, or paint, the surface becomes water proof and the moisture and oxygen present in the air cannot come into direct contact with iron. Hence, rusting is prevented.
    → Galvanisation:An iron article is coated with a layer of zinc metal, which prevents the iron to come in contact with oxygen and moisture. Hence, rusting is prevented.

    11. What type of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?

    Answer

    When non-metals are combined with oxygen then neutral or acidic oxides are formed. Examples of acidic oxides are NO2, SO2 and examples of neutral oxides are NO, CO etc.

    12. Give reasons

    (a) Platinum, gold and silver are used to make jewellery.
    (b) Sodium, potassium and lithium are stored under oil.
    (c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking.
    (d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction.

    Answer

    (a) Platinum, gold, and silver are used to make jewellery because they are very lustrous. Also, they are very less reactive and do not corrode easily.

    (b) Sodium, potassium, and lithium are very reactive metals and react very vigorously with air as well as water.Therefore, they are kept immersed in kerosene oil in order to prevent their contact with air and moisture.

    (c) Though aluminium is a highly reactive metal, it is resistant to corrosion. This is because aluminium reacts with oxygen present in air to form a thin layer of aluminium oxide. This oxide layer is very stable and prevents further reaction of aluminium with oxygen. Also, it is light in weight and a good conductor of heat. Hence, it is used to make cooking utensils.

    (d) Carbonate and sulphide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction because metals can be easily extracted from their oxides rather than from their carbonates and sulphides.

    13. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice. Explain why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the vessels.

    Answer

    Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in air to form copper carbonate and as a result, copper vessel loses its shiny brown surface forming a green layer of copper carbonate. The citric acid present in the lemon or tamarind neutralises the basis copper carbonate and dissolves the layer. That is why, tarnished copper vessels are cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice to give the surface of the copper vessel its characteristic lustre.

    14. Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the basis of their chemical properties.

    Answer

    Metal
    Non-metal
    Metals are electropositive.Non-metals are electronegative.
    Oxides of metal are basic in nature.Oxides of non-metals are acidic in nature.
    Metals displace hydrogen from dilute acids.They can't replace hydrogen from dilute acids.
    Metals form chlorides which are electrovalent or ionic compounds.Non-metals form chlorides which are covalent compounds.
    They react with water to form oxides and hydroxides. Some metals react with cold water, some with hot water, and some with steam.They do not react with water.

    15. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter of old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new but their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset but after a futile argument the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to find out the nature of the solution he had used?

    Answer

    The solution he had used was Aqua regia. Aqua regia is Latin word which means ‘Royal Water’. It is the mixture of concentrated Hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1. It is capable of dissolving metals like Gold and Platinum. Since the outer layer of the gold bangles is dissolved in aqua regia so their weight was reduced drastically.

    16. Give reasons why copper is used to make hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron).

    Answer

    Copper does not react with cold water, hot water, or steam. However, iron reacts with steam. If the hot water tanks are made of steel (an alloy of iron), then iron would react vigorously with the steam formed from hot water. 3Fe + 4H2O → Fe3O4 + H2O
    That is why copper is used to make hot water tanks, and not steel.


    Why do silver articles become black after sometime when exposed to air?
    They get tarnished by reacting with atmospheric air to form silver sulphide.

    Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal?

    Hydrogen gas

    Name the metal which react with a very dilute HNO3 to evolve hydrogen gas

    Manganese or Magnesium

    Why does calcium floats on water?

    Calcium floats on water because the bubbles of hydrogen gas formed and stick to the surface of calcium metal.

    In the formation of a compound X, Yatom 'X' gives one electron to an atom of 1'. What is the nature of bond in XY?

    Ionic Bond

    Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10th Science


    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry Exercise 3.3

    $
    0
    0

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry Exercise 3.3

    Finding NCERT Solutions of tough questions can be really time consuming thus, we have prepared NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry Exercise 3.3. This exercise wise solutions will help you finding the answers of every desired questions which will provide you competitive edge than others. By practicing NCERT Solutions, you will get to know the basic fundamentals of the chapter and work accordingly which ultimately boost your marks.

    Like other exercises, exercise 3.3 also contains only two questions in which you have to find specific axis and plot Cartesian plane.

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry Exercise 3.3 Part 1

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 3 Coordinate Geometry Exercise 3.3 Part 2

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.1

    $
    0
    0

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.1

    Exercise 4.1 Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Class 9 Maths NCERT Solutions is provided here that will be useful in knowing the fundamentals on the chapter. The formulas and points given will help you in higher classes so you must be well aware of the concepts. NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths prepared by subjects matter experts will provide you with the accurate and detailed solutions so you can always complete your homework on time. We have provided solutions to every difficult question so you can learn at ease.

    There are only two questions in the Ex 4.1 in which you have to write a linear equation in two variables to represent given statement and express given linear equations in the form ax + by + c = 0.

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.1 Part 1

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.1 Part 2

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.2

    $
    0
    0

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.2

    Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.2 NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths is useful in finding the solutions of difficult questions. Class 9 Maths NCERT Solutions will help you in finding important formulas and points so you can be aware of all the concepts of the chapter. These are prepared by subject matter experts which are detailed and accurate so you can complete your homework on time.

    Ex 4.2 has total 4 questions which are about finding given options are true, and why, writing four solutions for each of the given equations etc.

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.2 Part 1

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.2 Part 2

    NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.2 Part 3

    NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 3 Democracy and Diversity Civics

    $
    0
    0

    NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 3 Democracy and Diversity Civics Social Studies (S.St)

    NCERT Solutions of Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity is given here that will be beneficial for you if you want to complete your homework or stand out in the tests. Ch 3 Democracy and Diversity NCERT Solutions will make you aware of many important topics in this chapter such as Mexico Olympics, civil Rights Movement in USA, origin of social differences, overlapping differences, cross cutting differences, politics of social divisions and many others.

     Study Reference for Class 10 Chapter 3 Democracy and Divsersity

      Page No: 37

      Exercises

      1. Discuss three factors that determine the outcomes of politics of social divisions.

      Answer

      Three factors which determine the outcomes of politics of social divisions:
      → The people's perception of their identities: When this is singular, the accommodation of other identities becomes difficult.
      → Representation of a community by political leaders: While representing a community, if politicians raise demands that are constitutional, then it is easier to accommodate those demands.
      → The government's reaction: If the reasonable demands of a community are suppressed by the government, then it leads to social divisions, which in turn threaten the integrity of the country.

      2. When does a social difference become a social division?

      Answer

      A social difference becomes a social division when it overlaps with some other social difference. For example, the Whites were rich and powerful and the Blacks were poor and homeless and discriminated against. When one kind of social difference becomes more important than the other, then it leads to division.

      3. How do social divisions affect politics? Give two examples.

      Answer

      In politics, there is competition between political parties. If these political parties use this
      competition in support of some social divisions, it can lead to political divisions. This can lead
      to conflict, violence or even disintegration of a country.
      → One example is of Northern Ireland where religious divisions led to ethno-political conflict. Two major sects of Christianity : 53% Protestants and 44% Catholics dominate the country. The Catholics wanted Northern Ireland to join the Republic of Ireland and the Protestants wanted to remain with UK. This led to years of violence where thousands were killed. Only in 1998, peace returned when the UK government and the Nationalists reached a peace treaty and stopped all violence.
      →  The second example is of Yugoslavia where the political parties refused to accommodate each other. Each ethno-religious group wanted to dominate the other. Result – disintegration of Yugoslavia into seven independent countries.

      4. ________________ social differences create possibilities of deep social divisions and tensions. ________________ social differences do not usually lead to conflicts.

      Answer

      Overlapping social differences create possibilities of deep social divisions and tensions.
      Cross cutting social differences do not usually lead to conflicts.

      Page No. 38

      5. In dealing with social divisions which one of the following statements is NOT correct about democracy?
      (a) Due to political competition in a democracy, social divisions get reflected in politics.
      (b) In a democracy it is possible for communities to voice their grievances in a peaceful manner.
      (c) Democracy is the best way to accommodate social diversity.
      (d) Democracy always leads to disintegration of society on the basis of social divisions.

      Answer

      (d) Democracy always leads to disintegration of society on the basis of social divisions.

      6. Consider the following three statements.
      A. Social divisions take place when social differences overlap.
      B. It is possible that a person can have multiple identities.
      C. Social divisions exist in only big countries like India.
      Which of the statements is/are correct?
      (a) A, B and C
      (b) A and B
      (c) B and C
      (d) Only C

      Answer

      (b) A and B

      7. Arrange the following statements in a logical sequence and select the right answers by using the code given below.
      A. But all political expression of social divisions need not be always dangerous.
      B. Social divisions of one kind or the other exist in most countries.
      C. Parties try to win political support by appealing to social divisions.
      D. Some social differences may result in social divisions.
      (a) D, B, C, A
      (b) D, B, A, C
      (c) D, A, C, B
      (d) A, B, C, D

      Answer

      (a) D, B, C, A

      8. Among the following, which country suffered disintegration due to political fights on the basis of religious and ethnic identities?
      (a) Belgium
      (b) India
      (c) Yugoslavia
      (d) Netherlands

      Answer

      (c) Yugoslavia

      9. Read the following passage from a famous speech by Martin Luther king Jr. in 1963. Which social division is he talking about? What are his aspirations and anxieties? Do you see a relationship between this speech and the incident in Mexico Olympics mentioned in this chapter?
      "I have a dream that my four little children will one day live in a nation where they will not be judged by the colour of their skin but by the content of their character. Let freedom ring - when we let it ring from every village and every hamlet, from every state and every city, we will be able to speed up that day when all of God's children - back men and white men, Jews and Gentiles, Protestants and Catholics - will be able to join hands and sing in the words of the old Negro spiritual: 'Free at last! Free at last! Thank God Almighty, we are free at last!' I have a dream that one day this nation will rise up and live out the true meaning of its creed: 'we hold these truths to be self-evident: that all men are created equal'."

      Answer

       There is mention of racial discrimination in the speech of Martine Luther King Jr in USA. He is referring to the segregation policies adopted by the Whites towards the Coloured people. He aspires for a country where there will be security for all; where racial abuse will not occur; and where everyone will be treated as equal irrespective of the colour of their skin. This speech and the incident at the Mexico Olympics are both part of a movement that wanted to highlight the plight of the African-American people.

      Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Civics

      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 4 Gender, Religion and Caste Civics

      $
      0
      0

      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 4 Gender, Religion and Caste Civics Social Studies (S.St)

      Ch 4 Gender, Religion and Caste Class 10 NCERT Solutions will help you in finding the solutions of difficult questions and knowing about the various topics such as gender division, feminist movements, women’so oppression, women’s political representation, religion, communalism and politics, caste system and many others. Class 9 Chapter 4 Gender, Religion and Caste NCERT Solutions will help you in revising the essential topics present in the chapter.
      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 4 Gender, Religion and Caste Civics

      Page No: 55

      Exercises

      1. Mention different aspects of life in which women are discriminated or disadvantaged in India.

      Answer

      In India, women are discriminated and disadvantaged in the following ways:
      →  They are not provided adequate education. Thus, the literacy rate among women is just 54%.
      → Most of the labour done by them is unpaid. Where they are paid for their work, they receive lesser wages than men.
      → Due to the preference for the boy child, female foeticide is practiced in many parts of the country.

      2. State different forms of communal politics with one example each.

      Answer

      Different forms of communal politics:
      → The expression of communal superiority in everyday beliefs
      Militant religious groups are a good example of this.
      → The desire to form a majoritarian dominance or a separate state
      Separatist leaders and political parties in Jammu and Kashmir and Central India are an example of this.
      → The use of religious symbols and leaders in politics to appeal to the voters
      This technique is applied by many politicians to influence voters from the two largest religious communities in the country.
      → In addition to all this, communal politics can take the form of communal violence and riots, like the riots in Gujarat in 2002.

      3. State how caste inequalities are still continuing in India.

      Answer

      Caste has not disappeared from contemporary India.
      → Even now most people marry within their own caste or tribe.
      → Untouchability has not ended completely despite constitutional prohibition.
      → Effects of centuries of advantages and disadvantages continue to be felt today, e.g., Caste continues to be closely linked to economic status.

      4. State two reasons to say that caste alone cannot determine election results in India.

      Answer

      Caste alone cannot determine election results in India because:
      → No parliamentary constituency has a clear majority of one single caste.
      → No party wins all the votes of a particular caste.

      5. What is the status of women's representation in India's legislative bodies?

      Answer

      When it comes to representation of women in legislative bodies, India is among the bottom group of nations in the world. Women's representation has always been less than 10% in Lok Sabha and 5% in the State Assemblies.
      On the other hand, the situation is different in the case of local government bodies. As one-third of seats in local government bodies (panchayats and municipalities) is reserved for women, there are more than 10 lakh elected women representatives in rural and urban local bodies.

      6. Mention any two constitutional provisions that make India a secular state.

      Answer

      Two constitutional provisions that make India a secular state are:
      → Freedom to practice, profess and propagate the religion of one’s choice.
      → The Constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.

      7. When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to:
      (a) Biological difference between men and women
      (b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women
      (c) Unequal child sex ratio
      (d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies

      Answer

      (b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women

      8. In India seats are reserved for women in
      (a) Lok Sabha
      (b) State Legislative Assemblies
      (c) Cabinets
      (d) Panchayati Raj bodies

      Answer

      (d) Panchayati Raj bodies

      9. Consider the following statements on the meaning of communal politics. Communal politics is based on the belief that:
      A. One religion is superior to that of others.
      B. People belonging to different religions can live together happily as equal citizens.
      C. Followers of a particular religion constitute one community.
      D. State power cannot be used to establish the domination of one religious group over others.
      Which of the statements is/are correct?
      (a) A, B, C and D
      (b) A, B and D
      (c) A and C
      (d) B and D

      Answer

      (c) A and C

      10. Which among the following statements about India's Constitution is wrong? It
      (a) prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion
      (b) gives official status to one religion
      (c) provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion
      (d) ensures equality of citizens within religious communities

      Answer

      (b) gives official status to one religion
      11. Social divisions based on ______________ are peculiar to India.

      Answer

      caste

      Page No: 56

      12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

      List I
      List II
      1.
      A person who believes in equal rights and opportunities for women and men
      Α.
      Communalist
      2.
      A person who says that religion is the principal basis of community
      Β.
      Feminist
      3.
      A person who thinks that caste is the principal basis of community
      C.
      Secularist
      4.
      A person who does not discriminate others on the basis of religious beliefs
      D.
      Castiest


      1
      2
      3
      4
      (a)
      B
      C
      A
      D
      (b)
      B
      A
      D
      C
      (c)
      D
      C
      A
      B
      (d)
      C
      A
      B
      D

      Answer

      1
      2
      3
      4
      (b)
      B
      A
      D
      C

      Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10th Civics

      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 5 Popular Struggles and Movements Civics

      $
      0
      0

      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 5 Popular Struggles and Movements Civics Social Studies (S.St)

      Ch 5 Popular Struggles and Movements Civics NCERT is given here that will introduce you to variety of topics such as popular struggles in Nepal and Bolivia, mobilisation and organisations, pressure groups and movements, influence of pressure Groups and movements on politics. These Chapter 5 Popular struggles and Movements will help you in completing your homework efficiently and improve your marks.
      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 5 Popular Struggles and Movements Civics

       Study Reference for Class 10 Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements

        Page No: 69

        Exercises

        1. In what ways do pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics?

        Answer

        Pressure groups and movements exert influence on politics in a variety of ways.
        → They try to gain public support and sympathy for their cause by carrying out information campaigns, organising meetings, filing petitions, etc.
        → By organising strikes and disruptions, they seek to make the government take note of their demands.
        → They also influence decision-making by lobbying.
        → The issues raised by them often influence the policies of political parties.

        2. Describe the forms of relationship between pressure groups and political parties?

        Answer

        The relationship between political parties and pressure groups can take different forms.
        → Pressure groups are often formed and led by politicians and political parties. Most trade unions and students' organisations in India are either established by, or affiliated to one or the other major political party.
        → Political parties sometimes grow out of movements. Parties like DMK and AIADMK were formed this way.
        → Many a times, the issues raised by pressure or movement groups are taken up by political parties, leading to a change in the policies of the parties.

        3. Explain how the activities of pressure groups are useful in the functioning of a democratic government.

        Answer

        Pressure groups help in the deepening of democracy. As long as everyone gets the
        opportunity, putting pressure on the rulers is not an unhealthy activity in a democracy. Governments can often come under undue pressure from a small group of rich and powerful people. Pressure groups perform a useful role of countering this undue influence of reminding the government of the needs and concerns of ordinary citizens.

        4. What is a pressure group? Give a few examples.

        Answer

        A pressure group is an organisation which attempts to influence government policies through protests and demonstrations. Pressure groups are formed when people with similar opinions get together for similar objectives. Examples of pressure groups are FEDECOR and BAMCEF.

        5. What is the difference between a pressure group and a political party?

        Answer

        A pressure group is an organised or an unorganised body that tries to promote its interests. They fight and try to achieve a common objective. Political parties contest elections because their aim is to achieve political power. They have more than one interests, they have their own ideology. They represent various interests and have their own way of achieving their aims.

        6. Organisations that undertake activities to promote the interests of specific social sections such as workers, employees, teachers, and lawyers are called _____________ groups.

        Answer

        sectional interest

        7. Which among the following is the special feature that distinguishes a pressure group from a political party?
        (a) Parties take political stances, while pressure groups do not bother about political issues.
        (b) Pressure groups are confined to a few people, while parties involve larger number of people.
        (c) Pressure groups do not seek to get into power, while political parties do.
        (d) Pressure groups do not seek to mobilise people, while parties do.

        Answer

        (c) Pressure groups do not seek to get into power, while political parties do.

        8. Match List I (organisations and struggles) with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
        List I
        List II
        1.
        Organisations that seek to promote the interests of a particular section or group
        Α.
        Movement
        2.
        Organisations that seek to promote common interest
        Β.
        Political parties
        3.
        Struggles launched for the resolution of a social problem with or without an organisational structure
        C.
        Sectional interest groups
        4.
        Organisations that mobilise people with a view to win political power
        D.
        Public interest groups


        1
        2
        3
        4
        (a)
        C
        D
        B
        A
        (b)
        C
        D
        A
        B
        (c)
        D
        C
        B
        A
        (d)
        B
        C
        D
        A

        Answer

        1
        2
        3
        4
        (b)
        C
        D
        A
        B

        Page No: 70

        9. Match List I with list II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
        List I
        List II
        1.
        Pressure group
        Α.
        Narmada Bachao Andolan
        2.
        Long-term movement
        Β.
        Asom Gana Parishad
        3.
        Single issue movement
        C.
        Women’s Movement
        4.
        Political party
        D.
        Fertilizer dealers’ association


        1
        2
        3
        4
        (a)
        D
        C
        A
        B
        (b)
        B
        A
        D
        C
        (c)
        C
        D
        B
        A
        (d)
        B
        D
        C
        A

        Answer

        1
        2
        3
        4
        (a)
        D
        C
        A
        B

        10. Consider the following statements about pressure groups and parties.
        A. Pressure groups are the organised expression of the interests and views of specific social sections.
        B. Pressure groups take positions on political issues.
        C. All pressure groups are political parties.
        Which of the statements given above are correct?
        (a) A, B and C
        (b) A and B
        (c) B and C
        (d) A and C

        Answer

        (b) A and B

        Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10th Civics

        NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.3

        $
        0
        0

        NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.3

        Exercise 4.3 Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths is very useful in finding the solutions of difficult questions. Class 9 Maths NCERT Solutions are helpful in finding important concepts of the chapter. These are prepared by Studyrankers experts so you can easily find questions and answers.

        Exercise 4.3 has total 8 questions in which you have to draw the graph of each of the given linear equations in two variables, give the equations of two lines passing through (2, 14) and etc.

        NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.3 Part 1

        NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.3 Part 2

        NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.3 Part 3

        NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.3 Part 4

        NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.3 Part 5

        NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.3 Part 6

        NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.3 Part 7

        NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.3 Part 8


        NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers

        $
        0
        0

        NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers

        Here, we have providing Chapter 1 Real Numbers NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths which will be beneficial for students. These solutions are updated according to 2019-20 syllabus. As NCERT Solutions are prepared by Studyrankers experts, we have taken of every steps so you can understand the concepts without any difficulty.
        NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 Real Numbers

        Page No: 7

        Exercise 1.1

        1. Use Euclid's division algorithm to find the HCF of:
        (i) 135 and 225
        (ii) 196 and 38220
        (iii) 867 and 255

        Answer

        (i) 225 > 135 we always divide greater number with smaller one.

        Divide 225 by 135 we get 1 quotient and 90 as remainder so that
        225= 135 ×1 + 90

        Divide 135 by 90 we get 1 quotient and 45 as remainder so that
        135= 90 × 1 + 45

        Divide 90 by 45 we get 2 quotient and no remainder so we can write it as
        90 = 2 × 45+ 0

        As there are no remainder so divisor 45 is our HCF.

        (ii) 38220 > 196 we always divide greater number with smaller one.

        Divide 38220 by 196 then we get quotient 195 and no remainder so we can write it as
        38220 = 196 × 195 + 0

        As there is no remainder so divisor 196 is our HCF.

        (iii) 867 > 255 we always divide greater number with smaller one.

        Divide 867 by 255 then we get quotient 3 and remainder is 102 so we can write it as
        867 = 255 × 3 + 102

        Divide 255 by 102 then we get quotient 2 and remainder is 51 so we can write it as
        255 = 102 × 2 + 51

        Divide 102 by 51 we get quotient 2 and no remainder so we can write it as
        102 = 51 × 2 + 0

        As there is no remainder so divisor 51 is our HCF.

        2. Show that any positive odd integer is of the form 6q + 1, or 6q + 3, or 6q + 5, where q is some integer.

        Answer

        Let take a as any positive integer and b = 6.

        Then using Euclid’s algorithm we get a = 6q + r here r is remainder and value of q is more than or equal to 0 and r = 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 because 0 ≤ r< b and the value of b is 6 
        So total possible forms will 6+ 0 , 6+ 1 , 6+ 2,6+ 3, 6q + 4, 6q + 5

        6q + 0
        6 is divisible by 2 so it is a even number 

        6q + 1 
        6 is divisible by 2 but 1 is not divisible by 2 so it is a odd number 

        6q + 2 
        6 is divisible by 2 and 2 is also divisible by 2 so it is a even number 

        6q +3 
        6 is divisible by 2 but 3 is not divisible by 2 so it is a odd number 

        6q + 4 
        6 is divisible by 2 and 4 is also divisible by 2 it is a even number

        6q + 5 
        6 is divisible by 2 but 5 is not divisible by 2 so it is a odd number

        So odd numbers will in form of 6q + 1, or 6q + 3, or 6q + 5.

        3. An army contingent of 616 members is to march behind an army band of 32 members in a parade. The two groups are to march in the same number of columns. What is the maximum number of columns in which they can march?

        Answer

        HCF (616, 32) will give the maximum number of columns in which they can march.
        We can use Euclid's algorithm to find the HCF.
        616 = 32 × 19 + 8
        32 = 8 × 4 + 0
        The HCF (616, 32) is 8.
        Therefore, they can march in 8 columns each.

        4. Use Euclid's division lemma to show that the square of any positive integer is either of form 3m or 3m + 1 for some integer m.
        [Hint: Let x be any positive integer then it is of the form 3q, 3q + 1 or 3q + 2. Now square each of these and show that they can be rewritten in the form 3m or 3m + 1.]

        Answer

        Let a be any positive integer and b = 3.
        Then a = 3q + r for some integer q≥ 0
        And r = 0, 1, 2 because 0 ≤ r< 3
        Therefore, a = 3q or 3q + 1 or 3q + 2
        Or,
        a2 = (3q)2 or (3q + 1)2 or (3q + 2)2
        a2 = (9q)2 or 9q2 + 6q + 1 or 9q2 + 12q + 4
        = 3 × (3q2) or 3(3q2 + 2q) + 1 or 3(3q2 + 4q + 1) + 1
        = 3k1 or 3k2 + 1 or 3k3 + 1

        Where k1k2, and k3 are some positive integers
        Hence, it can be said that the square of any positive integer is either of the form 3m or 3m + 1.

        5. Use Euclid's division lemma to show that the cube of any positive integer is of the form 9m, 9+ 1 or 9m + 8.

        Answer

        Let a be any positive integer and b = 3
        a = 3q + r, where q≥ 0 and 0 ≤ r< 3
        a = 3q or 3q + 1 or 3q + 2
        Therefore, every number can be represented as these three forms. There are three cases.

        Case 1: When a = 3q,
        a3 = (3q)3 = 27q3 = 9(3q)3 = 9m,
        Where m is an integer such that m = 3q3

        Case 2: When a = 3q + 1,
        a3 = (3q +1)3
        a3= 27q3 + 27q2 + 9q + 1
        a3 = 9(3q3 + 3q2 + q) + 1
        a3 = 9m + 1
        Where m is an integer such that m = (3q3 + 3q2 + q)

        Case 3: When a = 3q + 2,
        a3 = (3q +2)3
        a3= 27q3 + 54q2 + 36q + 8
        a3 = 9(3q3 + 6q2 + 4q) + 8
        a3 = 9m + 8
        Where m is an integer such that m = (3q3 + 6q2 + 4q)

        Therefore, the cube of any positive integer is of the form 9m, 9m + 1,
        or 9m + 8.

        Page No: 11

        Exercise 1.2

        1. Express each number as product of its prime factors:
        (i) 140
        (ii) 156
        (iii) 3825
        (iv) 5005
        (v) 7429

        Answer

        (i) 140 = 2 × 2 × 5 × 7 = 22× 5 × 7
        (ii) 156 = 2 × 2 × 3 × 13 = 22× 3 × 13
        (iii) 3825 = 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 17 = 32× 52× 17
        (iv) 5005 = 5 × 7 × 11 × 13
        (v) 7429 = 17 × 19 × 23

        2. Find the LCM and HCF of the following pairs of integers and verify that LCM × HCF = product of the two numbers.
        (i) 26 and 91
        (ii) 510 and 92 
        (iii) 336 and 54

        Answer

        (i) 26 = 2 × 13
        91 =7 × 13
        HCF = 13
        LCM =2 × 7 × 13 =182
        Product of two numbers 26 × 91 = 2366
        Product of HCF and LCM 13 × 182 = 2366
        Hence, product of two numbers = product of HCF × LCM

        (ii) 510 = 2 × 3 × 5 × 17
        92 =2 × 2 × 23
        HCF = 2
        LCM =2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 17 × 23 = 23460
        Product of two numbers 510 × 92 = 46920
        Product of HCF and LCM 2 × 23460 = 46920
        Hence, product of two numbers = product of HCF × LCM

        (iii) 336 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 7
        54 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3
        HCF = 2 × 3 = 6
        LCM = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 7 =3024
        Product of two numbers 336 × 54 =18144
        Product of HCF and LCM 6 × 3024 = 18144
        Hence, product of two numbers = product of HCF × LCM.

        3. Find the LCM and HCF of the following integers by applying the prime factorization method.
        (i) 12, 15 and 21 
        (ii) 17, 23 and 29 
        (iii) 8, 9 and 25

        Answer

        (i) 12 = 2 × 2 × 3
        15 =3 × 5
        21 =3 × 7
        HCF = 3
        LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 7 = 420

        (ii) 17 = 1 × 17
        23 = 1 × 23
        29 = 1 × 29
        HCF = 1
        LCM = 1 × 17 × 19 × 23 = 11339

        (iii) 8 =1 × 2 × 2 × 2
        9 =1 × 3 × 3
        25 =1 × 5 × 5
        HCF =1
        LCM = 1 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 = 1800

        4. Given that HCF (306, 657) = 9, find LCM (306, 657).

        Answer

        We have the formula that
        Product of LCM and HCF = product of number
        LCM × 9 = 306 × 657
        Divide both side by 9 we get
        LCM = (306 × 657) / 9 = 22338

        5. Check whether 6n can end with the digit 0 for any natural number n.

        Answer

        If any digit has last digit 10 that means it is divisible by 10 and the factors of 10 = 2 × 5.
        So value 6n should be divisible by 2 and 5 both 6n is divisible by 2 but not divisible by 5 So it can not end with 0.

        6. Explain why 7 × 11 × 13 + 13 and 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 5 are composite numbers.

        Answer

        7 × 11 × 13 + 13
        Taking 13 common, we get
        13 (7 x 11 +1 )
        13(77 + 1 )
        13 (78)
        It is product of two numbers and both numbers are more than 1 so it is a composite number.

        7 × 6 × 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 + 5
        Taking 5 common, we get
        5(7 × 6 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 +1)
        5(1008 + 1)
        5(1009)
        It is product of two numbers and both numbers are more than 1 so it is a composite number.

        7. There is a circular path around a sports field. Sonia takes 18 minutes to drive one round of the field, while Ravi takes 12 minutes for the same. Suppose they both start at the same point and at the same time, and go in the same direction. After how many minutes will they meet again at the starting point?

        Answer

        They will be meet again after LCM of both values at the starting point.
        18 = 2 × 3 × 3
        12 = 2 × 2 × 3
        LCM = 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 = 36
        Therefore, they will meet together at the starting point after 36 minutes.

        Page No: 14

        Exercise 1.3

        1. Prove that √5 is irrational.

        Answer

        Let take √5 as rational number
        If a and b are two co prime number and b is not equal to 0.
        We can write √5 = a/b
        Multiply by b both side we get
        b5 = a
        To remove root, Squaring on both sides, we get
        5b2 = a2…  (i)

        Therefore, 5 divides a2 and according to theorem of rational number, for any prime number p which is divides a2 then it will divide a also.
        That means 5 will divide a. So we can write
        a = 5c
        Putting value of a in equation (i) we get
        5b2 = (5c)2
        5b2 = 25c2
        Divide by 25 we get
        b2/5 = c2
        Similarly, we get that b will divide by 5
        and we have already get that a is divide by 5
        but a and b are co prime number. so it contradicts.
        Hence √5 is not a rational number, it is irrational.

        2. Prove that 3 + 2√5 is irrational.

        Answer

        Let take that 3 + 2√5 is a rational number.
        So we can write this number as
        3 + 2√5 = a/b
        Here a and b are two co prime number and b is not equal to 0
        Subtract 3 both sides we get
        2√5 = a/b– 3
        2√5 = (a-3b)/b
        Now divide by 2, we get
        5 = (a-3b)/2b
        Here a and b are integer so (a-3b)/2b is a rational number so √5 should be a rational number But √5 is a irrational number so it contradicts.
        Hence, 3 + 2√5 is a irrational number.

        3. Prove that the following are irrationals:
        (i) 1/√2 (ii) 7√5 (iii) 6 + √2

        Answer

        (i) Let take that 1/2 is a rational number.
        So we can write this number as
        1/√2 = a/b
        Here a and b are two co prime number and b is not equal to 0
        Multiply by √2 both sides we get
        1 = (a2)/b
        Now multiply by b
        b = a2
        divide by a we get
        b/a = √2
        Here a and b are integer so b/a is a rational number so √2 should be a rational number But √2 is a irrational number so it contradicts.
        Hence, 1/√2 is a irrational number


        (ii) Let take that 7√5 is a rational number.
        So we can write this number as
        7√5 = a/b
        Here a and b are two co prime number and b is not equal to 0
        Divide by 7 we get
        5 = a/(7b)
        Here a and b are integer so a/7b is a rational number so √5 should be a rational number but √5 is a irrational number so it contradicts.
        Hence, 7√5 is a irrational number.


        (iii) Let take that 6 + √2 is a rational number.
        So we can write this number as
        6 + √2 = a/b
        Here a and b are two co prime number and b is not equal to 0
        Subtract 6 both side we get
        2 = a/b– 6
        2 = (a-6b)/b
        Here a and b are integer so (a-6b)/b is a rational number so √2 should be a rational number.
        But √2 is a irrational number so it contradicts.
        Hence, 6 + √2 is a irrational number.

        Page No: 17

        Exercise 1.4

        1. Without actually performing the long division, state whether the following rational numbers will have a terminating decimal expansion or a non-terminating repeating decimal
        expansion:
        (i) 13/3125
        (ii) 17/
        (iii) 64/455 
        (iv) 15/1600 
        (v) 29/343 
        (vi) 23/2× 52 
        (vii) 129/2× 5× 75 
        (viii) 6/15 
        (ix) 35/50 
        (x) 77/210

        Answer

        (i) 13/3125
        Factorize the denominator we get
        3125 =5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 55
        So denominator is in form of 5m so it is terminating .

        (ii) 17/8
        Factorize the denominator we get
        8 =2 × 2 × 2 = 23
        So denominator is in form of 2m so it is terminating .

        (iii) 64/455
        Factorize the denominator we get
        455 =5 × 7 × 13
        There are 7 and 13 also in denominator so denominator is not in form of 2m × 5n . so it is not terminating.

        (iv) 15/1600
        Factorize the denominator we get
        1600 =2 × 2 × 2 ×2 × 2 × 2 × 5 × 5 = 26 × 52
        so denominator is in form of 2m × 5n
        Hence it is terminating.

        (v) 29/343
        Factorize the denominator we get
        343 = 7 × 7 × 7 = 73
        There are 7 also in denominator so denominator is not in form of 2m × 5n
        Hence it is non-terminating.

        (vi) 23/(23 × 52)
        Denominator is in form of 2m × 5n
        Hence it is terminating.

        (vii) 129/(22 × 57 × 75 )
        Denominator has 7 in denominator so denominator is not in form of 2m × 5n
        Hence it is none terminating.

        (viii) 6/15
        divide nominator and denominator both by 3 we get 2/5
        Denominator is in form of 5m so it is terminating.

        (ix) 35/50 divide denominator and nominator both by 5 we get 7/10
        Factorize the denominator we get
        10=2 × 5
        So denominator is in form of 2m × 5n so it is terminating.

        (x) 77/210
        simplify it by dividing nominator and denominator both by 7 we get 11/30
        Factorize the denominator we get
        30=2 × 3 × 5
        Denominator has 3 also in denominator so denominator is not in form of 2m × 5n
        Hence it is none terminating.

        Page No: 18

        2. Write down the decimal expansions of those rational numbers in Question 1 above which have terminating decimal expansions.

        Answer

        (i) 13/3125 = 13/55 = 13×25/55×25 = 416/105 = 0.00416 (ii) 17/8 = 17/23 = 17×53/23×53 = 17×53/103 = 2125/103 = 2.125

        (iv) 15/1600 = 15/24×102 = 15×54/24×54×102 = 9375/106 = 0.009375

        (vi) 23/2352 = 23×53×22/23 52×53×22 = 11500/105 = 0.115

        (viii) 6/15 = 2/5 = 2×2/5×2 = 4/10 = 0.4

        (ix) 35/50 = 7/10 = 0.7.

        3. The following real numbers have decimal expansions as given below. In each case, decide whether they are rational or not. If they are rational, and of the form p , q you say about the prime factors of q?
        (i) 43.123456789
        (ii) 0.120120012000120000...
        (iii) 43.123456789

        Answer

        (i) Since this number has a terminating decimal expansion, it is a rational number of the form p/q, and q is of the form 2m × 5n.

        (ii) The decimal expansion is neither terminating nor recurring. Therefore, the given number is an irrational number.
        (iii) Since the decimal expansion is non-terminating recurring, the given number is a rational number of the form p/q, and q is not of the form 2m × 5n.

        Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10th Maths

        NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Maths Chapter 1 - Real Numbers

        In chapter 1 Real Numbers, we will restart our exploration of the world of real numbers. We will study Euclid’s division algorithm and the Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic. Also, we will see decimal representation of real numbers.

        Euclid's Division Algorithm is a technique to compute HCF or GCD (greatest common divisor) of two given positive integers saya and b (a > b) by successive use of Euclid's division lemma.

        The Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic, on the other hand, has to do something with multiplication of positive integers. It says very composite number can be factorised as a product of primes, and this factorisation is unique, apart from the order in which prime factors occur.

        There are total four exercises in this chapter. We have provided Class 10 Maths Solutions of every exercises step by step. You can check solutions of each exercises just by clicking on the links given below.
        CBSE NCERT Solutions are best way to check your understanding of any chapter as it contains all the basic to advance questions. Studyrankes experts have solved all the questions so you can check them whenever you find it difficult.

        NCERT Solutions for Class 7th: Ch 4 Simple Equations Geometry

        $
        0
        0

        NCERT Solutions for Chapter 4 Simple Equations Class 7 Mathematics

        Page No: 81

        Exercise 4.1

        1. Complete the last column of the table:
        S. No.EquationValueSay, whether the Equation is satisfied. (Yes / No)
        1x+3=0x=3
        2x+3=0x=0
        3x+3=0x=−3
        4x−7=1x=7
        5x−7=1x=8
        65x=25x=0
        75x=25x=5
        85x=25x=−5
        9m/3=2m=−6
        10m/3=2m=0
        11m/3=2m=6

        Answer

        S. No.EquationValueSay, whether the Equation is satisfied. (Yes / No)
        1x+3=0x=3No
        2x+3=0x=0No
        3x+3=0x=−3Yes
        4x−7=1x=7No
        5x−7=1x=8Yes
        65x=25x=0No
        75x=25x=5Yes
        85x=25x=−5No
        9m/3=2m=−6No
        10m/3=2m=0No
        11m/3=2m=6Yes

        2. Check whether the value given in the brackets is a solution to the given equation or not:
        (a) n+5=19(n=1)
        (b) 7n+5=19(n=−2)
        (c) 7n+5=19(n=2)
        (d) 4p−3=13(p=1)
        (e) 4p−3=13(p=−4)
        (f) 4p−3=13(p=0)

        Answer

        (a) n+5=19(n=1)
        Putting n=1 in L.H.S.,
        1 + 5 = 6
        ∵ L.H.S. ≠ R.H.S.,
        ∴ n=1 is not the solution of given equation.

        (b) 7n+5=19(n=−2)
        Putting n=−2 in L.H.S.,
        7(−2)+5=−14+5=−9
        ∵ L.H.S. ≠ R.H.S.,
        ∴ n=−2 is not the solution of given equation.

        (c) 7n+5=19(n=2)
        Putting n=2 in L.H.S.,
        7(2)+5=14+5=19
        ∵ L.H.S. = R.H.S.,
        ∴ n=2is the solution of given equation.

        (d) 4p−3=13(p=1)
        Putting p=1 in L.H.S.,
        4(1)−3=4−3=1
        ∵ L.H.S. ≠ R.H.S.,
        ∴ p=1 is not the solution of given equation.

        (e) 4p−3=13(p=−4)
        Putting p=−4 in L.H.S.,
        4(−4)−3=−16−3=−19
        ∵ L.H.S. ≠ R.H.S.,
        ∴ p=−4 is not the solution of given equation.

        (f) 4p−3=13(p=0)
        Putting p=0 in L.H.S.,
        4(0)−3=0−3=−3
        ∵ L.H.S. ≠ R.H.S.,
        ∴ p=0 is not the solution of given equation.

        3. Solve the following equations by trial and error method:
        (i) 5p+2=17
        (ii) 3m−14=4

        Answer

        (i) 5p+2=17
        Putting p=−3 in L.H.S. 5(−3)+2 = −15+2=−13
        ∵−13≠17
        Therefore, p=−3 is not the solution.

        Putting p=−2 in L.H.S. 5(−2)+2=−10+2=−8
        ∵−8≠17
        Therefore, p=−2 is not the solution.

        Putting p=−1 in L.H.S. 5(−1)+2=−5+2=−3
        ∵−3≠17
        Therefore, p=−1 is not the solution.

        Putting p=0 in L.H.S. 5(0)+2=0+2=2
        ∵ 2≠17
        Therefore, p=0 is not the solution.

        Putting p=1 in L.H.S. 5(1)+2=5+2=7
        ∵7≠17
        Therefore, p=1 is not the solution.

        Putting p=2 in L.H.S. 5(2)+2=10+2=12
        ∵12≠17
        Therefore, p=2 is not the solution.

        Putting p=3 in L.H.S. 5(3)+2=15+2=17
        ∵17=17
        Therefore, p=3 is the solution.

        (ii) 3m−14=4
        Putting m=−2 in L.H.S. 3(−2)−14=−6−14=−20
        ∵ −20≠4
        Therefore, m=−2 is not the solution.

        Putting m=−1 in L.H.S. 3(−1)−14=−3−14=−17
        ∵−17≠4
        Therefore, m=−1 is not the solution.

        Putting m=0 in L.H.S. 3(0)−14=0−14=−14
        ∵−14≠4
        Therefore, m=0 is not the solution.

        Putting m=1 in L.H.S. 3(1)−14=3−14=−11
        ∵−11≠4
        Therefore, m=1 is not the solution.

        Putting m=2 in L.H.S. 3(2)−14=6−14=−8
        ∵−8≠4
        Therefore, m=2is not the solution.

        Putting m=3 in L.H.S. 3(3)−14=9−14=−5
        ∵−5≠4
        Therefore, m=3 is not the solution.

        Putting m=4 in L.H.S. 3(4)−14=12−14=−2
        ∵−2≠4
        Therefore, m=4 is not the solution.

        Putting m=5 in L.H.S. 3(5)−14=15−14=1
        ∵1≠4
        Therefore, m=5 is not the solution.

        Putting m=6 in L.H.S. 3(6)−14=18−14=4
        ∵4=4
        Therefore, m = 6m =6 is the solution.

        4. Write equations for the following statements:
        (i) The sum of numbers x and 4 is 9.
        (ii) 2 subtracted from y is 8.
        (iii) Ten times a is 70.
        (iv) The number b divided by 5 gives 6.
        (v) Three-fourth of t is 15.
        (vi) Seven times mm plus 7 gets you 7.
        (vii) One-fourth of a number x minus 4 gives 4.
        (viii) If you take away 6 from 6 times y, you get 60.
        (ix) If you add 3 to one-third of z, you get 30.

        Answer

        (i) x+4=9
        (ii) y−2=8
        (iii) 10a=70
        (iv) b/5=6
        (v) 3/4.t=15
        (vi) 7m+7=77
        (vii) x/4−4=4
        (viii) 6y−6=60
        (ix) z/3+3=30

        5. Write the following equations in statement form:
        (i) p+4=15
        (ii) m−7=3
        (iii) 2m=7
        (iv) m/5=3
        (v) 3m/5=6
        (vi) 3p+4=25
        (vii) 4p−2=18
        (viii) p/2+2=8

        Answer

        (i) The sum of numbers p and 4 is 15.
        (ii) 7 subtracted from m is 3.
        (iii) Two times m is 7.
        (iv) The number m is divided by 5 gives 3.
        (v) Three-fifth of the number m is 6.
        (vi) Three times p plus 4 gets 25.
        (vii) If you take away 2 from 4 times p, you get 18.
        (viii) If you added 2 to half is p, you get 8.

        6. Set up an equation in the following cases:
        (i) Irfan says that he has 7 marbles more than five times the marbles Parmit has. Irfan has 37 marbles. (Tale mm to be the number of Parmit’s marbles.)
        (ii) Laxmi’s father is 49 years old. He is 4 years older than three times Laxmi’s age. (Take Laxmi’s age to be y years.)
        (iii) The teacher tells the class that the highest marks obtained by a student in her class are twice the lowest marks plus 7. The highest score is 87. (Take the lowest score to be l. )
        (iv) In an isosceles triangle, the vertex angle is twice either base angle. (Let the base angle be b in degrees. Remember that the sum of angles of a triangle is 180∘.)

        Answer

        (i) Let m be the number of Parmit’s marbles.
        ∴ 5m+7=37

        (ii) Let the age of Laxmi be y years.
        ∴ 3y+4=49

        (iii) Let the lowest score be l.
        ∴ 2l+7=87

        (iv) Let the base angle of the isosceles triangle be b, so vertex angle = 2b
        ∴ 2b+b+b=180∘
        ⇒ 4b=180∘ [Angle sum property of a Δ]

        Page No. 86

        Exercise 4.2

        1. Give first the step you will use to separate the variable and then solve the equations:
        (a) x−1=0
        (b) x+1=0
        (c) x−1=5
        (d) x+6=2
        (e) y−4=−7
        (f) y−4=4
        (g) y+4=4
        (h) y+4=−4

        Answer

        (a) x−1=0
        ⇒ x−1+1=0+1 [Adding 1 both sides]
        ⇒ x=1

        (b) x+1=0 
        ⇒ x+1−1=0−1 [Subtracting 1 both sides]
        ⇒ x=−1

        (c) x−1=5 
        ⇒ x−1+1=5+1 [Adding 1 both sides]
        ⇒ x=6

        (d) x+6=2 
        ⇒ x+6−6=2−6 [Subtracting 6 both sides]
        ⇒ x=−4

        (e) y−4=−7
        ⇒ y−4+4=−7+4 [Adding 4 both sides]
        ⇒ y=−3

        (f) y−4=4 
        ⇒ y−4+4=4+4 [Adding 4 both sides]
        ⇒ y=8

        (g) y+4=4 
        ⇒ y+4−4=4−4 [Subtracting 4 both sides]
        ⇒ y=0

        (h) y+4=−4
        ⇒ y+4−4=−4−4 [Subtracting 4 both sides]
        ⇒ y=−8

        2. Give first the step you will use to separate the variable and then solve the equations
        (a) 3l = 42
        (b) b/2 = 6
        (c) p/7 = 4
        (d) 4x = 25
        (e) 8y = 36
        (f) z/3 = 54
        (g) a/5 = 7/15
        (h) 20t = −10

        Answer

        (a) 3l=42
        ⇒ 3l/3=42/3 [Dividing both sides by 3]
        ⇒ l=14

        (b) b/2=6 
        ⇒ b/2×2=6×2 [Multiplying both sides by 2]
        ⇒ b=12

        (c) p/7=4 
        ⇒ p/7×7=4×7[Multiplying both sides by 7]
        ⇒ p=28

        (d) 4x=25
        ⇒ 4x4=25/4 [Dividing both sides by 4]
        ⇒ x=25/4

        (e) 8y=36
        ⇒ 8y/8=36/8 [Dividing both sides by 8]
        ⇒ y=9/2

        (f) z/3=54
        ⇒ z/3×3=5/4×3 [Multiplying both sides by 3]
        ⇒ z=15/4

        (g) a/5=7/15 
        ⇒ a/5×5=7/15×5 [Multiplying both sides by 5]
        ⇒ a=73

        (h) 20t=−10
        ⇒ 20t/20=−10/20 [Dividing both sides by 20]
        ⇒ t=−1/2

        3. Give first the step you will use to separate the variable and then solve the equations
        (a) 3n−2=46
        (b) 5m+7=17
        (c) 20p/3=40
        (d) 3p/10=6

        Answer

        (a) 3n−2=46
        Step I: 3n−2+2=46+2=48
        [Adding 2 both sides]
        Step II: 3n/3=48/3
        ⇒ n=16 [Dividing both sides by 3]

        (b) 5m+7=17
        Step I: 5m+7−7=17−7=17−7 
        ⇒ 5m=10 [Subtracting 7 both sides]
        Step II: 5m/5=10/5
        ⇒m=2 [Dividing both sides by 5]

        (c) 20p/3=40
        Step I: 20p/3×3 = 40×3 
        ⇒ 20p = 120 [Multiplying both sides by 3]
        Step II: 20p/20=120/20
        ⇒ p=6 [Dividing both sides by 20]

        (d) 3p/10=6
        Step I: 3p/10×10 = 6×10
        ⇒ 3p=60 [Multiplying both sides by 10]
        Step II: 3p/3 = 60/3
        ⇒ p=20 [Dividing both sides by 3]

        4. Solve the following equation:
        (a) 10 p = 100
        (b) 10p + 10 =100
        (c) p/4 = 5
        (d) −p/3 = 5
        (e) 3p/4 = 6
        (f) 3s = −9
        (g) 3s + 12 = 0
        (h) 3s = 0
        (i) 2q = 6
        (j) 2q−6 = 0
        (k) 2q+6 = 0
        (l) 2q+6 = 12

        Answer

        (a) 10p=100
        ⇒ 10p/10=100/10 [Dividing both sides by 10]
        ⇒ p=10

        (b) 10p+10=100
        ⇒ 10p+10−10 = 100−10 [Subtracting both sides 10]
        ⇒ 10p=90
        ⇒ 10p/10=90/10 [Dividing both sides by 10]
        ⇒ p=9

        (c) p/4=5
        ⇒ p/4 × 4 = 5×4 [Multiplying both sides by 4]
        ⇒ p = 20

        (d) −p/3=5
        ⇒ −p/3×(−3) = 5×(−3) [Multiplying both sides by – 3]
        ⇒ p = −15

        (e) 3p/4 =6
        ⇒ 3p/4 × 4 = 6×4 [Multiplying both sides by 4]
        ⇒ 3p = 24
        ⇒ 3p/3 = 24/3 [Dividing both sides by 3]
        ⇒ p=8

        (f) 3s = −9
        ⇒ 3s/3 = −9/3 [Dividing both sides by 3]
        ⇒ s = −3

        (g) 3s+12=0
        ⇒ 3s+12−12=0−12 [Subtracting both sides 10]
        ⇒ 3s=−12
        ⇒ 3s/3 = −12/3 [Dividing both sides by 3]
        ⇒ s=−4

        (h) 3s=0
        ⇒ 3s/3=0/3 [Dividing both sides by 3]
        ⇒ s=0

        (i) 2q = 6
        ⇒ 2q/2 = 6/2 [Dividing both sides by 2]
        ⇒ q = 3

        (j) 2q−6 = 0
        ⇒ 2q−6+6 = 0+6 [Adding both sides 6]
        ⇒ 2q = 6
        ⇒ 2q/2 = 6/2 [Dividing both sides by 2]
        ⇒ q=3

        (k) 2q+6 = 0
        ⇒ 2q+6−6 = 0−6 [Subtracting both sides 6]
        ⇒ 2q = −6
        ⇒ 2q/2 = −6/2 [Dividing both sides by 2]
        ⇒ q = −3

        (l) 2q+6 = 12
        ⇒ 2q+6−6 = 12−6 [Subtracting both sides 6]
        ⇒ 2q = 6
        ⇒ 2q/2 = 6/2 [Dividing both sides by 2]
        ⇒ q = 3

        Page No. 89

        Exercise 4.3

        1. Solve the following equations:
        (a) 2y + 5/2 = 37/2
        (b) 5t + 28 = 10
        (c) a/5 + 3 = 2
        (d) q/4 + 7=5
        (e) 5/2 x = 10
        (f) 5/2 x = 25/4
        (g) 7m + 19/2 =13
        (h) 6z +10 = −2
        (i) 3l/2 = 2/3
        (j) 2b/3 − 5 = 3

        Answer

        (a) 2y + 5/2 = 37/2
        ⇒ 2y = 37/2−5/2
        ⇒ 2y =37−5/2
        ⇒ 2y =32/2
        ⇒ 2y =16/2
        ⇒ y = 8

        (b) 5t + 28=10
        ⇒ 5t =10−28
        ⇒ 5t = −18
        ⇒ t =−18/5

        (c) a/5+3=2
        ⇒ a/5=2−3⇒ a/5=−1
        ⇒ a=−1×5
        ⇒ a=−5

        (d) q/4 + 7=5
        ⇒ q/4 = 5−7
        ⇒ q/4 = −2
        ⇒ q = −2×4
        ⇒ q = −8

        (e) 5/2 x =10
        ⇒ 5x = 10×2
        ⇒ 5x = 20
        ⇒ x = 20/5
        ⇒ x = 4

        (f) 5/2 x = 25/4
        ⇒ 5x = 25/4 ×2 [Multiplying both sides by 2]
        ⇒ 5x = 25/2
        ⇒ x = 25/(2×5)
        ⇒ x = 5/2

        (g) 7m + 19/2 = 13
        ⇒ 7m = 13 − 19/2
        ⇒ 7m = 26− 19/2
        ⇒ 7m = 7/2
        ⇒ m = 7/(2×7)
        ⇒ m = 12

        (h) 6z + 10 = −2
        ⇒ 6z = −2−10
        ⇒ 6z = −12
        ⇒ z = −12/6
        ⇒ z = −2

        (i) 3l/2=2/3
        ⇒ 3l = 2/3 ×2
        ⇒ 3l = 4/3
        ⇒ l = 4/3 ×3
        ⇒l = 49

        (j) 2b/3 − 5 =3
        ⇒ 2b/3 = 3+5
        ⇒ 2b/3 = 8
        ⇒ 2b = 8×3
        ⇒ 2b = 24
        ⇒ b = 24/2
        ⇒ b = 12

        2. Solve the following equations:
        (a) 2(x+4)=12
        (b) 3(n−5)=21
        (c) 3(n−5)=−21
        (d) 3−2(2−y)=7
        (e) −4(2−x)=9
        (f) 4(2−x)=9
        (g) 4+5(p−1)=34
        (h) 34−5(p−1)=4

        Answer

        (a) 2(x+4) = 12
        ⇒ x+4 = 12/2
        ⇒ x+4 = 6
        ⇒ x = 6−4
        ⇒ x = 2

        (b) 3(n−5) = 21
        ⇒ n−5 = 21/3
        ⇒ n−5 = 7
        ⇒ n =7+5
        ⇒ n =12

        (c) 3(n−5) = −21
        ⇒ n−5 = −21/3
        ⇒ n−5 = −7
        ⇒ n = −7+5
        ⇒ n = −2

        (d) 3−2(2−y) = 7
        ⇒ −2(2−y) = 7−3
        ⇒ −2(2−y) = 4
        ⇒ 2−y = 4/−2
        ⇒ 2−y = −2
        ⇒ −y = −2−2
        ⇒ −y = −4
        ⇒ y = 4

        (e) −4(2−x) = 9
        ⇒ −4×2 − x×(−4) = 9
        ⇒ −8 + 4x = 9
        ⇒ 4x = 9+8
        ⇒ 4x = 17
        ⇒ x = 17/4

        (f) 4(2−x) = 9
        ⇒ 4×2 − x×(4) = 9
        ⇒ 8−4x =9
        ⇒ −4x = 9−8
        ⇒ −4x = 1
        ⇒ x = −1/4

        (g) 4+5(p−1) = 34
        ⇒ 5(p−1) = 34−4
        ⇒ 5(p−1) = 30
        ⇒ p−1 = 30/5
        ⇒ p−1 = 6
        ⇒ p = 6+1
        ⇒ p = 7p
        ⇒ p =7

        (h) 34−5(p−1) = 4
        ⇒ −5(p−1) = 4−34
        ⇒ −5(p−1) = −30
        ⇒ p−1 = −30/−5
        ⇒ p−1 = 6
        ⇒ p =6+1
        ⇒ p =7

        3. Solve the following equations:
        (a) 4=5(p−2)
        (b) −4=5(p−2)
        (c) −16=−5(2−p)
        (d) 10 = 4 +3(t+2)
        (e) 28 = 4+ 3(t+5)
        (f) 0 = 16 +4(m−6)

        Answer

        (a) 4 = 5(p-2)
        ⇒ 4 = 5p - 10
        ⇒ 5p - 10 = 4
        ⇒ 5p = 4+10
        ⇒ p = 14/5

        (b) -4 = 5(p-2)
        ⇒ -4 = 5p - 10
        ⇒ 5p - 10 = -4
        ⇒ 5p = -4 + 10
        ⇒ p = 6/5

        (c) −16=−5(2−p)
        -16 = -10 + 5p
        ⇒ -10 + 5p = -16
        ⇒ 5p = -16 + 10
        ⇒ p = -6/5

        (d) 10 = 4 +3(t+2)
        ⇒ 10 = 4 + 3t + 6
        ⇒ 10 = 10 + 3t
        ⇒ 10 + 3t = 10
        ⇒ 3t = 10 - 10
        ⇒ t = 0

        (e) 28 = 4 +3(t+5)
        ⇒ 28 = 4 + 3t + 15
        ⇒ 28 = 18 + 3t
        ⇒ 18 + 3t = 28
        ⇒ 3t = 28 -18
        ⇒ t = 10/3

        (f) 0 = 16 +4(m−6)
        ⇒ 0 = 16 + 4m - 24
        ⇒ -8 + 4m = 0
        ⇒ 4m = 8
        ⇒ m = 8/4
        ⇒ m = 2

        4. (a) Construct 3 equations starting with x=2.
        (b) Construct 3 equations starting with x=−2

        Answer

        (a) 3 equations starting with x=2.
        (i) x=2
        Multiplying both sides by 10, 10x=20
        Adding 2 both sides 10x+2 =20+2 = 10x + 2 = 22
        (ii) x=2
        Multiplying both sides by 5 5x=10
        Subtracting 3 from both sides 5x−3=10−3 = 5x−3=7
        (iii) x=2
        Dividing both sides by 5 x 5=2/5

        (b) 3 equations starting with x=−2.
        (i) x=−2
        Multiplying both sides by 3 3x=−6
        (ii) x=−2
        Multiplying both sides by 3 3x=−6
        Adding 7 to both sides 3x+7=−6+7 = 3x+7=1
        (iii) x=−2
        Multiplying both sides by 3 3x=−6
        Adding 10 to both sides 3x+10=−6+10= 3x+10=4

        Page No. 91

        Exercise 4.4

        1. Set up equations and solve them to find the unknown numbers in the following cases:
        (a) Add 4 to eight times a number; you get 60.
        (b) One-fifth of a number minus 4 gives 3.
        (c) If I take three-fourth of a number and add 3 to it, I get 21.
        (d) When I subtracted 11 from twice a number, the result was 15.
        (e) Munna subtracts thrice the number of notebooks he has from 50, he finds the result to be 8.
        (f) Ibenhal thinks of a number. If she adds 19 to it divides the sum by 5, she will get 8.
        (g) Answer thinks of a number. If he takes away 7 from 5/2 of the number, the result is 11/2.

        Answer

        (a) Let the number be x.
        According to the question, 8x+4=60
        ⇒ 8x = 60−4
        ⇒ 8x = 56
        ⇒ x = 56/8
        ⇒ x = 7

        (b) Let the number be y.
        According to the question, y/5−4=3
        ⇒ y/5 = 3+4
        ⇒ y/5 = 7
        ⇒ y = 7×5
        ⇒ y = 35

        (c) Let the number be z.
        According to the question, 3/4.z+3=21
        ⇒ 3/4 z = 21−3
        ⇒ 3/4 z = 18
        ⇒ 3z = 18×4
        ⇒ 3z = 72
        ⇒ z = 72/3
        ⇒ z = 24

        (d) Let the number be x
        According to the question, 2x−11=15
        ⇒ 2x = 15+11
        ⇒ 2x = 26
        ⇒ x = 26/2
        ⇒ x = 13

        (e) Let the number be m.
        According to the question, 50−3m=8
        ⇒ −3m = 8−50
        ⇒ −3m = −42
        ⇒ m = −42/−3
        ⇒ m = 14

        (f) Let the number be n.
        According to the question, (n+190/5=8
        ⇒ n+19 = 8×5
        ⇒ n+19 = 40
        ⇒ n = 40−19
        ⇒ n = 21

        (g) Let the number be x.
        According to the question, 5/2 x−7=11/2
        ⇒ 5/2 x = 11/2+7
        ⇒ 5/2 x = (11+14)/2
        ⇒ 5/2 x = 25/2
        ⇒ 5x = (25×2)/2
        ⇒ 5x = 25
        ⇒ x = 25/5
        ⇒ x = 5

        2. Solve the following:
        (a) The teacher tells the class that the highest marks obtained by a student in her class are twice the lowest marks plus 7. The highest score is 87. What is the lowest score?
        (b) In an isosceles triangle, the base angles are equal. The vertex angle is 40∘. What are the base angles of the triangle? (Remember, the sum of three angles of a triangle is 180∘.)
        (c) Sachin scored twice as many runs as Rahul. Together, their runs fell two short of a double century. How many runs did each one score?

        Answer

        (a) Let the lowest marks be y.
        According to the question, 2y+7=87
        ⇒ 2y = 87−7
        ⇒ 2y = 80
        ⇒ y = 80/2
        ⇒ y = 40
        Thus, the lowest score is 40.

        (b) Let the base angle of the triangle be b.
        Given, a=40∘,b=c
        Since, a+b+c=180∘ [Angle sum property of a triangle]
        ⇒ 40∘+b+b=180∘
         
        ⇒ 40∘+2b = 180∘
        ⇒ 2b= 180∘ − 40∘
        ⇒ 2b = 140∘
        ⇒ b = 140∘/2
        ⇒ b = 70∘
        Thus, the base angles of the isosceles triangle are 70∘ each.

        (c) Let the score of Rahul be x runs and Sachin’s score is 2x.
        According to the question, x+2x=198
        ⇒ 3x = 198
        ⇒ x = 198/3
        ⇒ x = 66
        Thus, Rahul’s score = 66 runs
        And Sachin’s score = 2 x 66 = 132 runs.

        3. Solve the following:
        (i) Irfan says that he has 7 marbles more than five times the marbles Parmit has. Irfan has 37 marbles. How many marbles does Parmit have?
        (ii) Laxmi’s father is 49 years old. He is 4 years older than three times Laxmi’s age. What is Laxmi’s age?
        (iii) People of Sundergram planted a total of 102 trees in the village garden. Some of the trees were fruit trees. The number of non-fruit trees were two more than three times the number of fruit trees. What was the number of fruit trees planted?

        Answer

        (i) Let the number of marbles Parmit has be m.
        According to the question, 5m+7=37
        ⇒ 5m=37−7
        ⇒ 5m=30
        ⇒ m=30/5
        ⇒ m=6
        Thus, Parmit has 6 marbles.

        (ii) Let the age of Laxmi be y years.
        Then her father’s age = (3y+4) years
        According to question, 3y+4=49
        ⇒ 3y=49−4
        ⇒ 3y=45
        ⇒ y=45/3
        ⇒ y=15
        Thus, the age of Laxmi is 15 years.

        (iii) Let the number of fruit trees be t.
        Then the number of non-fruits tree = 3t+2
        According to the question, t+3t+2 = 102
        ⇒ 4t+2 =102
        ⇒ 4t = 102−2
        ⇒ 4t = 100
        ⇒ t = 100/4
        ⇒ t = 25
        Thus, the number of fruit trees are 25.

        4. Solve the following riddle:
        I am a number, Tell my identity!
        Take me seven times over, And add a fifty!
        To reach a triple century, You still need forty!

        Answer

        Let the number be n.
        According to the question, 7n+50+40 = 300
        ⇒ 7n+90 = 300
        ⇒ 7n = 300−90
        ⇒ 7n = 210
        ⇒ n = 210/7
        ⇒ n = 30
        Thus, the required number is 30.

        Go to Chapters list

        NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 6 Political Parties Civics

        $
        0
        0

        NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 6 Political Parties Civics Social Studies (S.St)

        Ch 6 Political Parties Class 10 Civics NCERT Solutions is very helpful in revising the significant topics given in the chapter such as meaning of political party, functions of political party, party system, parties in India and challenges to political parties. NCERT Solutions for Chapter 6 Political Parties will make you aware of the basic concepts so you can easily understand questions and how to answer them.
        NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 6 Political Parties Civics

         Study Reference for Class 10 Chapter 6 Political Parties

          Page No: 87

          Exercises

          1. State the various functions political parties perform in a democracy.

          Answer

          The various functions political parties perform in a democracy are:
          → Candidates are put forward by political parties to contest in elections. These candidates may be chosen by the top leaders, or by members of the party.
          → Parties put forward their policies and programmes for voters to chose from them.
          → Political parties play a major role in making laws for the country. No law can become a bill unless majority parties support it.
          → Political parties form and run governments.
          → Parties that lose election play the role of opposition.to the party in power.
          → Parties shape public opinion.
          → Political parties form an important link between the government and the people. It is easy for the public to approach their local leader than a government official.The local leader has to listen to the public demand, otherwise he will lose the next election.

          2. What are the various challenges faced by political parties?

          Answer

          The various challenges faced by political parties are:

          → Lack of Internal democracy:
          • Every member of the party does not have a chance to take part in decision-making process.
          • Every member is not consulted before taking a decision.
          • There is no proper organisation or registration of members.
          • Power remains in the hands of a few top leaders, who do not consult ordinary members.
          • Ordinary members have no information about the internal working of the party.

          → Dynastic Succession: With power in the hands of a few top leaders, all party positions go to their family members. These members may not be qualified or have the ability to hold their positions.

          → Money and Muscle Power:
          • Money is needed to organise demonstrations, public meetings and speeches to publicise the image of the party. Parties choose those candidates who can raise money for the party and win elections with their money.
          • Sometimes parties also support criminals candidates because they can win elections.

          → Meaningful choice to others: Most of the political parties have same fundamental and ideological issues. Voters do not have a meaningful choice. Even leaders keep changing parties, thus confusing the voter.

          3. Suggest some reforms to strengthen parties so that they perform their functions well?

          Answer

          Some reforms to strengthen parties are:
          → A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties.
          → It should be mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets, about 1/3rd to the women candidates.
          → There should be state funding of elections. The government should give parties money to support the election expenses.

          4. What is a political party?

          Answer

          A political party is a group of people who follow an ideology and thus come together to contest elections and hold power in the government.

          5. What are the characteristics of a political party?

          Answer

          Characteristics of a political party are:
          → A political party has members who agree on some policies and programmes for the society
          with a view to promote common good.
          → It seeks to implement the policies by winning popular support through elections.
          → The presence of a leader, the party workers and supporters.
          → It is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government.

          6. A group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government is called a ______________________.

          Answer

          Political Party

          7. Match List I (organisations and struggles) with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

          List I
          List II
          1.
          Congress Party
          Α.
          National Democratic Alliance
          2.
          Bharatiya Janata Party
          Β.
          State party
          3.
          Communist Party of India (Marxist)
          C.
          United Progressive Alliance
          4.
          Telugu Desam party
          D.
          Left Front


          1
          2
          3
          4
          (a)
          C
          A
          B
          D
          (b)
          C
          D
          A
          B
          (c)
          C
          A
          D
          B
          (d)
          D
          C
          A
          B

          Answer

          1
          2
          3
          4
          (c)
          C
          A
          D
          B

          9. Who among the following is the founder of the Bahujan Samaj Party?
          A. Kanshi Ram
          B. Sahu Maharaj
          C. B.R. Ambedker
          D. Jotiba Phule

          Answer

          A. Kanshi Ram

          Page No: 88

          10. What is the guiding philosophy of the Bharatiya Janata Party?
          A. Bahujan Samaj
          B. Revolutionary democracy
          C. Integral humanism
          D. Modernity

          Answer

          D. Modernity

          Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10th Civics

          NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 7 Outcomes of Democracy Civics

          $
          0
          0

          NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 7 Outcomes of Democracy Civics Social Studies (S.St)

          Ch 7 Outcomes of Democracy NCERT Solutions will help you in understanding the basic concepts provided in the chapter such as how do we assess democracy’s outcomes, accommodation of social diversity, caste inequality and many others. These NCERT Solutions of Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy is updated as per the latest marking scheme released by CBSE.
          NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 7 Outcomes of Democracy Civics

           Study Reference for Class 10 Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

            Page No: 99

            Exercises

            1. How does democracy produce an accountable, responsive and legitimate government?

            Answer

            → Democracy produces an accountable government: Democracy produces an accountable governments, as the people has the right in choose their representatives through the electoral process. These elected representatives form the government and participate in the decision-making process on behalf of the people. If these elected representatives not work properly, people have a chance to not elect them in next election.
            → Democracy Produces Responsive Government: Democratic governments are elected by the people and are responsible towards the people and Parliament. These governments promote the formation of public opinion and take care of the needs and expectations of the people.
            → Democracy Produces Legitimate Government: A democratic government is people’s own government. People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them. They also believe that democracy is suitable for their country. Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.

            2. What are the conditions under which democracies accommodate social diversities?

            Answer

            Democracies accommodate social diversities when it is well understood that democracy is not just the rule of the majority, and that the rule of the majority is not just the rule of a single religious or social community.

            3. Give arguments to support or oppose the following assertions:
            • Industrialised countries can afford democracy but the poor need dictatorship to become rich.
            • Democracy can't reduce inequality of incomes between different citizens.
            • Government in poor countries should spend less on poverty reduction, health, education and spend more on industries and infrastructure.
            • In democracy all citizens have one vote, which means that there is absence of any domination and conflict.

              Answer

              • This statement is incorrect as can be seen from the examples of India and Zimbabwe. In 1947, India was included in the Third World nations, but now, it is one of the fast-growing economies in the world. On the other hand, Zimbabwe, which was a fairly prosperous nation, has run into huge international debt with the progression of Robert Mugabe's regime.

              • Democracy can't reduce inequality of incomes between different citizens. This statement is incorrect. The Minimum Wages Act enacted by the government and other policies which regulate the basic price at which agricultural producers and small industries sell their goods, have helped increase the per capita income of the country, thereby making its citizens more prosperous.
              • Government in poor countries should spend less on poverty reduction, health, education and spend more on industries and infrastructure. This is not a wise option as in poor countries, the people cannot afford health and education services.
              • In democracy all citizens have one vote, which means that there is absence of any domination and conflict. This is not true as conflict can be eliminated only in an ideal situation. In real democracies, though every person has one vote, there are divisions among the people. These divisions lead to conflict.

                4. Identify the challenges to democracy in the following descriptions. Also suggest policy/institutional mechanism to deepen democracy in the given situations:
                • Following a High Court directive a temple in Orissa that had separate entry doors for dalits and non-dalits allowed entry for all from the same door.
                • A large number of farmers are committing suicide in different states of India.
                • Following allegation of killing of three civilians in Gandwara in a fake encounter by Jammu and Kashmir police, an enquiry has been ordered.

                  Answer

                  • The challenge to democracy in the first statement is to provide equal status to all its citizens in spite of their caste.
                  • The challenge to democracy in the second instance is providing farmers with subsidies which will help them to earn profits and have a satisfactory level of livelihood.
                  • The challenge to democracy is to preserve the people's trust in government arms like the police.
                    5. In the context of democracies, which of the following ideas is correct - democracies have successfully eliminated:
                    A. conflicts among people
                    B. economic inequalities among people
                    C. differences of opinion about how marginalised sections are to be treated
                    D. the idea of political inequality

                    Answer

                    D. the idea of political inequality

                    6. In the context of assessing democracy which among the following is odd one out. Democracies need to ensure:
                    A. free and fair elections
                    B. dignity of the individual
                    C. majority rule
                    D. equal treatment before law

                    Answer

                    C. majority rule

                    7. Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that
                    A. democracy and development go together
                    B. inequalities exist in democracies
                    C. inequalities do not exist under dictatorship
                    D. dictatorship is better than democracy

                    Answer

                    B. inequalities exist in democracies

                    Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Civics

                    NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe History

                    $
                    0
                    0

                    NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe History Social Studies (S.St)

                    If you want accurate NCERT Solutions of Ch 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe then you can find it here. Chapter 1 NCERT Solutions of Class 10 History will make you aware of the various important topics of world history such as the idea of the nation, the making of nationalism in Europe, the making of Germany, Italy and Britain, nationalism and imperialism and many others.
                    NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe History

                     Study Reference for Class 10 Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

                      Page No: 28

                      Write in Brief

                      1. Write a Note on:
                      a) Giuseppe Mazzini
                      b) Count Camilo de Cavour
                      c) The Greek War of Independence
                      d) The Frankfurt Parliament
                      e) The role of women in nationalist struggles

                      a) Giuseppe Mazzini: Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary. He was born in Genoa in 1807. He was a member of the secret society of the Carbonari. At the age of 24, he was sent into exile in 1831 for attempting a revolution in Liguria. He founded underground societies named ‘Young Italy’ in Marseilles and ‘Young Europe’ in Berne, whose members were like-minded young men from Poland, France, Italy and the German States. He believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind. So, Italy had to be forged into a single unified republic within a wider alliance of nations.

                      b) Count Camilo de Cavour: Cavour was chief minister of Sardinia-Piedmont state who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy. He was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat. Like many other wealthy and educated members of the Italian elite, he spoke French much better than he did Italian. He engineered a careful diplomatic alliance with France, which helped Sardinia-Piedmont defeat the Austrian forces in 1859, and thereby free the northern part of Italy from the Austrian Habsburgs.

                      c) The Greek War of Independence: Greece was a part of the Ottoman Empire since the 15th century. The struggle for independence amongst the Greeks began in 1821. Nationalists in Greece got support from other Greeks living in exile and also from many Western Europeans sharing sympathies for ancient Greek culture. Poets and artists lauded Greece as the cradle of European civilisation and mobilised public opinion to support its struggle against a Muslim empire. Finally, the Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation.

                      d) The Frankfurt Parliament: It was an all-German National Assembly formed by a large number of political associations whose members were middle-class professionals, businessmen and prosperous artisans. Its first meeting was convened on 18 May 1848 in the Church of St. Paul at Frankfurt. They drafted a constitution for the German nation to be headed by a monarchy subject to a parliament. The king of Prussia rejected the crown offered by the deputies of parliament and joined other monarchs to oppose the elected assembly. As it was dominated by the middle classes who resisted the demands of workers and artisans and consequently lost their support. In the end, troops were called in and the assembly was forced to disband.

                      e) The role of women in nationalist struggles: The issue of extending political rights to women was a controversial one within the liberal movement, in which large numbers of women had participated actively over the years. Women had formed their own political associations, founded newspapers and taken part in political meetings and demonstrations. Despite this, they were denied suffrage during the election of the Assembly. When the Frankfurt Parliament convened in the Church of St. Paul, women were admitted only as observers to stand in the visitors’ gallery.

                      2. What steps did the French revolutionaries take to create a sense of collective identity among the French people?

                      Answer

                      The French revolutionaries took many important steps to create a sense of collective identity among the French people which were:
                      → Ideas of la Patrie (the fatherland) and le Citoyen (the citizen) emphasising the notion of a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution.
                      → A new French flag, a tricolour replaced the royal standard.
                      → The Estates General was renamed the National Assembly and was elected by a group of active citizens.
                      → New hymns, oaths and martyrs commemorated in the name of the nation.
                      → A central administrative system made uniform laws for the entire nation.
                      → Discouraging regional dialects and promoting French as a common language of the nation.

                      3. Who were Marianne and Germania? What was the importance of the way in which they were portrayed?

                      Answer

                      Marianne and Germania were female allegories for the French and the German nation respectively. These female allegories were used to portray ideas such as Liberty, Justice and the Republic. These allegories remind the public of the national symbol of unity and to persuade them to identify with it.

                      4. Briefly trace the process of German unification.

                      Answer

                      In 1848, the middle class Germans tried to unite the different regions of the German confederation into a nation-state governed by an elected parliament. But they were repressed by the combined forces of the monarchy and the military, supported by the large landowners of Prussia. After this, Prussia soon became the leader of German unification movement. Its Chief Minister Otto von Bismarck was the architect of the process with support from Prussian army and Prussian bureaucracy. The unification process was completed after Prussia won wars with Austria, Denmark and France over seven years time. In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed the German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

                      5. What changes did Napoleon introduce to make the administrative system more efficient in the territories ruled by him?

                      Answer

                      Napoleon introduced following changes to make the administrative system more efficient in the areas ruled by him:
                      → He established civil code in 1804 also known as the Napoleonic Code which did away with all privileges based on birth and established equality before law and secured the right to property.
                      → He simplified administrative divisions, abolished feudal system, and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
                      → In towns too, guild systems were removed. Transport and communication systems were improved.

                      Discuss

                      1. Explain what is meant by the 1848 revolution of the liberals. What were the political, social and economic ideas supported by the liberals?

                      Answer

                      The 1848 revolution was led by the educated middle class along with the poor, unemployed starving peasants and workers in Europe. In certain parts of Europe such as Germany, Italy, Poland and the Austro-Hungarian Empire, men and women of the liberal middle classes took advantage of the growing popular unrest to push their demands for the creation of nation-states based on parliamentary principles.
                      The political, social and economic ideas supported by the liberals were:
                      → Politically, they demanded constitutionalism with national unification. They wanted the creation of a nation-state on parliamentary principles – a constitution, freedom of the press and freedom of association.
                      → Socially, they wanted to rid society of its class-based partialities and birth rights. Serfdom and bonded labour had to be abolished.
                      → Economically, they wanted freedom of markets and right to property. Abolition of state imposed restrictions on the movements of goods and capital.

                      2. Choose three examples to show the contribution of culture to the growth of nationalism in Europe.

                      Answer

                      Three examples to show the contribution of culture to the growth of nationalism in Europe were:

                      • Romanticism was a cultural movement which sought to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment. Romantic artists and poets focused on emotions, intuition and mystical feelings as their effort was to create a sense of a shared collective heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of a nation.

                      • Folk songs, dances and poetry were regarded as the true spirit of the nation. So collecting and recording these forms of folk culture was essential to the project of nation-building. The vernacular language and the collection of local folklore were used to carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences who were mostly illiterate. For example, Karol Kurpinski celebrated the national struggle through his operas and music, turning folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka into nationalist symbols.

                      • Language too played an important role in developing nationalist sentiments. After Russian invasion, the Polish language was forced out of schools and the Russian language was imposed everywhere. After the failure of an armed rebellion against Russian rule in 1831, many members of the clergy
                      in Poland began to use language as a weapon of national resistance. Polish was used for Church gatherings and all religious instruction. As a result, a large number of priests and bishops were put in jail or sent to Siberia by the Russian authorities as punishment for their refusal to preach in Russian. The use of Polish came to be seen as a symbol of the struggle against Russian dominance.

                      3. Through a focus on any two countries, explain how nations developed over the nineteenth century.

                      Answer

                      The development of the German and Italian nation states in the nineteenth century:

                      • Unification of Germany with the help of Army:  In 1848, an attempt was made to unite different regions of the German Confederation into a nation-state governed by an elected parliament. However, this liberal initiative was repressed by the combined forces of the monarchy and the military, who were supported by the large landowners of Prussia. Thereafter, Prussia took on the leadership of the movement for national unification. Its Chief Minister, Otto von Bismarck with the help of the Prussian army and bureaucracy in the process. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark and France ended in Prussian victory and completed the process of unification. In January I 871, the Prussian king, William I, was proclaimed as the German emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

                      • Unification of Italy by a princely house: In the middle of the 19th century, Italy was divided into seven states. Of these, only Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under the Austrian-Habsburg Empire, the centre was ruled by the Pope while the southern regions were dominated by the Bourbon kings of France. Also, the Italian language had many regional and
                      local variations. In the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini sought to formulate a coherent programme for a unitary Italian republic and also had established a secret society called Young Italy for the fulfillment of his goals. The revolutionary uprisings in 1831 and 1848 largely failed. Thus, the responsibility of uniting Italian states was now on King Victor Emmanuel II of Sardinia-Piedmont. The Chief Minister of Italy, Cavour led the movement to unify the regions of Italy. He was able to conclude a diplomatic alliance with France. Also, Sardinia-Piedmont succeeded in defeating the Austrian forces in 1859. Apart from regular troops, a large number of armed volunteers, under the leadership of Giuseppe Garibaldi, also joined the movement. In 1860, these troops marched into south Italy and the kingdom of Two Sicilies. These areas were liberated and later joined with Sardinia. In 1870, Rome was vacated by France and it became a part of Sardinia. Finally, Italy was unified in 1871.

                      4. How was the history of nationalism in Britain unlike the rest of Europe?

                      Answer

                      The history of nationalism in Britain unlike the rest of Europe because:
                      → In Britain, the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution.
                      → The primary identities of the people who inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones - such as English, Welsh, Scot or Irish.
                      → The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland resulted in the formation of the 'United Kingdom of Great Britian' meant that England was able to impose its influence on Scotland. Scotland's distinctive culture and political institutions were systematically suppressed.
                      → The Scottish highlanders were forbidden to speak their Gaelic language or wear their national dress and large numbers were forcibly driven out of their homeland.
                      → The English helped the Protestants of Ireland to establish their dominance over a largely Catholic country. Catholic revolts against British dominance were suppressed. Ireland was forcibly incorporated into the United Kingdom in 1801.
                      → The symbols of the new Britain - the British flag, the national anthem, the English language were actively promoted and the older nations survived only as subordinate partners in this union.

                      5. Why did nationalist tensions emerge in the Balkans?

                      Answer

                      The Balkans was a region of ethnic and geographical variations. It consisted of modern-day Albania, Greece, Romania, Bulgaria, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia, Slovenia, Serbia, Herzegovina and Montenegro. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman Empire. The nationalist tensions emerged in the Balkans due to the spread of the ideas of romantic nationalism in the Balkans together with the disintegration of the Ottoman Empire. The Balkan peoples based their claims for independence or political rights on nationality and used history to prove that they had once been independent. The rebellious nationalities in the Balkans thought of their struggles as attempts to win back their long-lost independence. The Balkan states were fiercely jealous of each other and each hoped to gain more territory at the expense of the others.

                      Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 2 Nationalism in India History

                      $
                      0
                      0

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 2 Nationalism in India History Social Studies (S.St)

                      Ch 2 Nationalism in India Class 10 History NCERT Solutions will help you in knowing the important concepts of the chapter like first world war, Satyagraha, khilafat movement, non-cooperation, civil disobedience movement that has shaped the modern history of India. NCERT Solutions for Clas 10 history Chapter 2 Nationalism in India will also prove useful if you want to study the independence struggle of India and revise its topics.
                      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 2 Nationalism in India History

                      Page No: 74

                      Write in Brief

                      1. Explain:
                      (a) Why growth of nationalism in the colonies is linked to an anti-colonial movement.
                      (b) How the First World War helped in the growth of the National Movement in India.
                      (c) Why Indians were outraged by the Rowlatt Act.
                      (d) Why Gandhiji decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement.

                      Answer

                      (a) The sense of being oppressed under colonialism provided a shared bond that tied many different groups together. People began discovering their unity in the process of their struggle with colonialism. The movements of freedom struggle were joined by the masses to free themselves from foreign exploitation. Thus, the growth of nationalism in the colonies is linked to anti-colonial movements.

                      (b) During the First World War, to finance the defence expenditure, customs duties were raised and income tax introduced. The forced recruitment in rural areas caused widespread anger. In 1918-19 and 1920-21, crops failed in many parts of India which resulted in acute shortages of food. Also, there was an influenza epidemic. The hardships of people did not ended after the war. Thus, they united under leaders to find a new way of struggle.

                      (c) The Rowlatt Act was hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council despite the united opposition of the Indian members. It gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. This was an unjust and oppressive law for Indians. Thus, Indians were outraged by the Rowlatt Act.

                      (d) Gandhiji felt the movement was turning violent in many places such as Chauri Chaura incident. He felt that satyagrahis needed to be properly trained before they would be ready for mass struggles. Thus, Gandhiji decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement.

                      2. What is meant by the idea Satyagraha?

                      Answer

                      Satyagraha was a novel method of mass agitation. The idea of ‘Satyagraha’ emphasized the power of truth and the need to search for truth. It suggested that if the cause was true, if the struggle was against injustice, then physical force was not necessary to fight the oppressor. A satyagrahi could win the battle through non-violence without seeking vengeance or being aggressive.

                      3. Write a newspaper report on:
                      (a) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre
                      (b) The Simon Commission

                      Answer

                      a) On 13th April 1919, the infamous Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place in the enclosed ground of Jallianwala Bagh. A large crowd gathered in the Jallianwala Bagh. Some people were present to protest against the British government’s repressive measures while others were there to attend the annual Baishakhi Fair. Being from outside the city, many villagers were unaware of the martial
                      law that had been imposed. Suddenly, a British military officer, General Dyer came, blocked the exit points from the Bagh and opened fire upon the innocent citizens. Hundreds of innocent people including women and children were killed and wounded due to firing by the British soldiers.

                      b) The Simon Commission was constituted by the Tory Government in Britain, under Sir John Simon. The objective of the Commission was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India and suggest some constitutional changes. But nationalists in India opposed the Commission because it had not a single Indian member. Therefore, when the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the slogan “Go Back Simon”. All parties, including Congress and the Muslim league, participated in the demonstrations.

                      4. Compare the images of Bharat Mata in this chapter with the image of Germania in Chapter 1.

                      Answer

                      → The image of Germania was the symbol of German nation whereas the image of Bharat Mata was the symbol of Indian nation.
                      → Both images inspired nationalists who worked very hard to unify their respective countries and to attain a liberal nation.
                      → The image of Bharat Mata painted by Abanindranath Tagore is bestowed with learning, food, clothing and some ascetic quality also. Another painting of Bharat Mata in which we find Mata holding Trishul and standing beside a lion and an elephant – symbols of power and authority. Germania as a female figure is standing against a background of the tricolour fabric of the national flag. She is wearing a crown of oak leaves, as the German oak stands for heroism.

                      Discuss

                      1. List all the different social groups which joined the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1921. Then choose any three and write about their hopes and struggles to show why they joined the movement.

                      Answer

                      The different social groups that joined the Non-Cooperation Movement of 1921 were the urban middle class comprising lawyers, students, teachers and headmasters, peasants, tribals and workers.
                      → The middle class joined the movement because the boycott of foreign goods would make the sale of their textiles and handlooms go up.
                      → The peasants took part in the movement because they hoped they would be saved from the oppressive landlords, high taxes taken by the colonial government.
                      → Plantation workers took part in the agitation hoping they would get the right to move freely in and outside the plantations and get land in their own villages.

                      2. Discuss the Salt March to make clear why it was an effective symbol of resistance against colonialism.

                      Answer

                      Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation as it was consumed by rich and poor alike. He declared that the tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production was the most oppressive face of British rule. Gandhiji sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax. Irwin was unwilling to negotiate, so Gandhiji started Salt march with 78 volunteers. He reached Dandi, violated law and made salt. This March developed the feeling of nationalism, people in different parts of the country broke the salt law and manufactured salt and demonstrated in front of government salt factories. Thus, Salt March was an effective symbol of resistance against colonialism.

                      3. Imagine you are a woman participating in the Civil Disobedience Movement. Explain what the experience meant to your life.

                      Answer

                      I participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement which was called by Gandhiji. I participated in protest marches, manufactured salt, and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops and went to jail. I really see these services to the nation as a sacred duty of women. From the very start, I was sure that British had to leave our country and I saw this as a proud moment as I took part in this activity.

                      4. Why did political leaders differ sharply over the question of separate electorates?

                      Answer

                      Many dalit leaders were keen on a different political solution to the problems of the community. They began organising themselves, demanding a separate electorate that would choose dalit members for legislative councils. They believed political empowerment would resolve the problems of their social disabilities. Dr B.R. Ambedkar, who organised the dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930, clashed with Mahatma Gandhi at the second Round Table Conference by demanding separate electorates for dalits. Gandhiji believed that separate electorates for dalits would slow down the process of their integration into society.
                      After the decline of the Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement, many Muslim leaders and intellectuals expressed their concern about the status of Muslims as a minority within India. They feared that the culture and identity of minorities would be submerged under the domination of Hindu majority.

                      Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.4

                      $
                      0
                      0

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.4

                      Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.4 Class 9 Maths NCERT Solutions will help you in completing your homework on time. NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths will prove very useful in completing home assignments on time. These NCERT Solutions are updated as per the latest marking scheme released by CBSE. You can revise the concepts through these questions and answers and excel in your exams.

                      Exercise 4.4 has only two questions in which you have to give the geometric representations of y = 3 as an equation.

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.4 Part 1

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 4 Linear Equations in Two Variables Exercise 4.4 Part 2


                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Exercise 5.1

                      $
                      0
                      0

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Exercise 5.1

                      Exercise 5.1 NCERT Solutions of Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Class 9 Maths will be very useful in completing your task and improve your marks in the examinations. Practicing NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths will improve your problem solving skills thereby increasing your efficiency. These will be also helpful in revising the concepts of the chapter so you understand the important formulas.

                      Exercise 5.1 has seven questions in which you need to state whether given statements are true and false, draw specific figure, prove that every line segment has one and only one mid-point etc.

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Exercise 5.1 Part 1

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Exercise 5.1 Part 2

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Exercise 5.1 Part 3

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Exercise 5.1 Part 4

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 3 The Making of a Global World History

                      $
                      0
                      0

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 3 The Making of a Global World History Social Studies (S.St)

                      Ch 3 The Making of a Global World NCERT Solutions of Class 10 History will help you in knowing how world became interconnected, silk routes, the nineteenth century, corn laws, role of technology, rinderpest, indentured labour migration, the great depression, Bretton Woods and many others. You can revise the chapter easily by taking help from Chapter 3 The Making of Global World NCERT Solutions.
                      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 3 The Making of a Global World History

                      Page No: 102

                      Write in Brief

                      1. Give two examples of different types of global exchanges which took place before the seventeenth century, choosing one example from Asia and one from the Americas.

                      Answer

                      Examples of the different types of global exchanges which took place before the seventeenth century:
                      • Example from the Americas: America had abundant crops, minerals and precious metals like gold and silver. The Europeans enhanced their wealth by utilising the rich resources of gold and silver.
                      • Example from Asia: China exported pottery and silk to India and Southeast Asia in return of textile goods and spices.

                      2. Explain how the global transfer of disease in the pre-modern world helped in the colonisation of the Americas.

                      Answer

                      The global transfer of disease in the pre-modern world helped in the colonisation of the Americas because the original inhabitants had no immunity against these diseases that came from Europe. Before the discovery of America, it had been cut off from regular contact with the rest of the world for millions of years. In particular, Smallpox proved a deadly killer. Once introduced, it spread deep into the continent, ahead even of any Europeans reaching there. It killed and decimated whole communities, paving the way for conquest.

                      3. Write a note to explain the effects of the following:
                      (a) The British government's decision to abolish the Corn Laws.
                      (b) The coming of rinderpest to Africa.
                      (c) The death of men of working-age in Europe because of the World War.
                      (d) The Great Depression on the Indian economy.
                      (e) The decision of MNCs to relocate production to Asian countries.

                      Answer

                      (a) After the British government's decision to abolish the Corn Laws, food could be imported into
                      Britain more cheaply than it could be produced within the country. British agriculture was unable to compete with imports. Vast areas of land were now left uncultivated, and thousands of men and women were thrown out of work. They flocked to the cities or migrated overseas. This indirectly led to global agriculture and rapid urbanisation, a prerequisite of industrial growth.

                      (b) Rinderpest had a terrifying impact on people’s livelihoods and the local economy. Rinderpest killed 90 percent of the cattle which destroyed African livelihoods. Planters, mine owners and colonial governments strengthen their power and forced Africans into the labour market.

                      (c) The death of men of working-age in Europe because of the World War reduced the able-bodied workforce in Europe. As men went to battle, women stepped in to undertake jobs that earlier only men were expected to do.

                      (d) The depression immediately affected Indian trade. India's exports and imports nearly halved between 1928 and 1934. Between 1928 and 1934, wheat prices in India fell by 50 percent. Across India, peasants' indebtedness increased. They used up their savings, mortgaged lands, and sold whatever jewellery and precious metals they had to meet their expenses. In these depression years, India became an exporter of precious metals, notably gold.

                      (e) The relocation of industry to low-wage countries stimulated world trade and capital flows. In the last two decades, the world's economic geography has been transformed as countries such as India,
                      China and Brazil have undergone rapid economic transformation.

                      4. Give two examples from history to show the impact of technology on food availability.

                      Answer

                      Two examples from history to show the impact of technology on food availability were:
                      → Faster railways, lighter wagons and larger ships helped move food more cheaply and quickly from faraway farms to final markets.
                      → Refrigerated ships, which enabled the transport of perishable foods like meat, butter and eggs over long distances.

                      5. What is meant by the Bretton Woods Agreement?

                      Answer

                      The Bretton Woods Agreement was signed between the world powers in July 1944 at Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, USA. It established the International Monetary Fund (IMF) to deal with external surpluses and deficits of its member nations and the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development was set up to finance post-war reconstruction.

                      Discuss

                      6. Imagine that you are an indentured Indian labourer in the Caribbean. Drawing from the details in this chapter, write a letter to your family describing your life and feelings.

                      Answer

                      Respected Family,

                      I hope all of you are fine there. I have been hired by the colonisers under a contract stating that I could return to India after working for five years at a plantation. However, the contract was a fraud and these are not allowing me to return. I joined this job in the hope to escape poverty and oppression but the condition of living and working is very harsh here. Most of the workers here belong to Bihar, central India and the dry regions of Tamil Nadu. There are few legal rights given to us. However, we have developed new art forms for expression.

                      Your Loving,
                      ABC

                      7. Explain the three types of movements or flows within international economic exchange. Find one example of each type of flow which involved India and Indians, and write a short account of it.

                      Answer

                      The three types of movements or flows within the international economic exchange are:
                      (i) Flow of trade: mean trade in goods such as cloth or wheat.
                      (ii) Flow of labour: mean the migration of people to new areas in search of work.
                      (iii) Flow of capital: short-term and long-term loan to and from other nations.

                      (i) India was involved in trade relations since ancient times. It exported textiles and spices in return for gold and silver from Europe.

                      (ii) In the nineteenth century, hundreds of thousands of Indian labourers went to work on plantations, in mines, and in road and railway construction projects around the world.

                      (iii) During British rule in India, many Europeans established their factories in India. Also, many Indian traders ventured beyond European colonies and they established flourishing emporia at busy ports worldwide, selling local and imported curios to tourists.

                      8. Explain the causes of the Great Depression.

                      Answer

                      The Great Depression was a result of many factors:
                      → Prosperity in the USA during the 1920s created a cycle of higher employment and incomes. It led to rise in consumption and demands. More investment and more employment created tendencies of speculations which led to the Great Depression of 1929 upto the mid-1930s.
                      → Stock market crashed in 1929. It created panic among investors and depositors who stopped investing and depositing. As a result, it created a cycle of depreciation.
                      → Failure of the banks: Some of the banks closed down when people withdrew all their assets, leaving them unable to invest. Some banks called back loans taken from them at the same dollar rate inspite of the falling value of dollar. It was worsened by British change in policy to value pound at the pre-war value.

                      9. Explain what is referred to as the G-77 countries. In what ways can G-77 be seen as a reaction to the activities of the Bretton Woods twins?

                      Answer

                      G-77 countries is a group of developing countries that demanded a new international economic order (NIEO); By the NIEO they meant a system that would give them real control over their natural resources, more development assistance, fairer prices for raw materials, and better access for their
                      manufactured goods in developed countries’ markets.

                      The Bretton Woods twins i.e., the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank have been established by the developed countries. The decision-making power in these institutions is in the hands of the Western industrial powers and USA. These institutions were set up to meet the financial needs of the industrialised countries and had nothing to do with the poverty and lack of development in the former colonial countries and developing nations. G-77 was created to cater the needs of developing nations. Therefore, G-77 be seen as a reaction to the activities of the Bretton Woods twins.

                      Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 5 The Age of Industrialisation History

                      $
                      0
                      0

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 5 The Age of Industrialisation History Social Studies (S.St)

                      Ch 5 The Age of Industrialisation Class 10 History NCERT Solutions will make you aware of the important topics like before the industrial revolution, hand labour, steam power, industrialisation in the colonies, factories come up and many others. NCERT Solutions of Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation is updated as per the latest pattern of CBSE.
                      NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Ch 5 The Age of Industrialisation History

                      Page No: 126

                      Write in Brief

                      1. Explain the following:
                      (a) Women workers in Britain attacked the Spinning Jenny.
                      (b) In the seventeenth century merchants from towns in Europe began employing peasants and artisans within the villages.
                      (c) The port of Surat declined by the end of the eighteenth century.
                      (d) The East India Company appointed gomasthas to supervise weavers in India.

                      Answer

                      (a) Women workers in Britain attacked the Spinning Jenny because it speeded up the spinning process, and consequently, reduced labour demand. This caused a valid fear of unemployment among women working in the woollen industry. Till date, they had survived on hand spinning, but this was placed in peril by the new machine.

                      (b) The trade and commerce guild controlled the market, raw materials, employees, and also production of goods in the towns. This created problems for merchants who wanted to increase production by employing more men. Therefore, they turned to peasants and artisans who lived in villages.

                      (c) The port of Surat declined by the end of the eighteenth century on account of the growing power of European companies in trade with India. They secured many concessions from local courts as well as the monopoly rights to trade. This led to a decline of the old ports of Surat and Hoogly from where local merchants had operated. Exports slowed and local banks here went bankrupt.

                      (d) The English East India Company appointed Gomasthas for:
                      → To eliminate the existence of traders and brokers and establish a direct control over the weavers.
                      → To eliminate weavers from dealing with other buyers by means of advances and control. In this manner, weavers who took loans and fees in advance were obligated to the British.

                      2. Write True or False against each statement:

                      (a) At the end of the nineteenth century, 80 per cent of the total workforce in Europe was employed in the technologically advanced industrial sector.
                      ► False

                      (b) The international market for fine textiles was dominated by India till the eighteenth century.
                      ► True

                      (c) The American Civil War resulted in the reduction of cotton exports from India.
                      ► Flase

                      (d) The introduction of the fly shuttle enabled handloom workers to improve their productivity.
                      ► True

                      3. Explain what is meant by proto-industrialisation.

                      Answer

                      Proto-industrialisation is the phase of industrialisation that was not based on the factory system. Before the coming of factories, there was large-scale industrial production for an international market. This part of industrial history is known as proto-industrialisation.

                      Discuss

                      1. Why did some industrialists in nineteenth-century Europe prefer hand labour over machines?

                      Answer

                      Some industrialists in nineteenth-century Europe prefer hand labour over machines because:
                      → Machines were costly, ineffective, difficult to repair, and needed huge capital investments.
                      → Labour was available at low wages at that period of time.
                      → In seasonal industries only seasonal labour was required.
                      → Market demands of variety of designs and colour and specific type could not be fulfilled by machine made clothes. Intricate designs and colours could be done by human-skills only.
                      → In Victorian age, the aristocrats and other upper class people preferred articles made by hand only.

                      2. How did the East India Company procure regular supplies of cotton and silk textiles from Indian weavers?

                      Answer

                      The English East India Company used different means to procure silk and cotton from the weavers:
                      → Appointment of paid supervisors called Gomasthas. They also collected supplies and examined cloth quality of the weavers.
                      → Prevention of Company weavers from dealing with other buyers through a system of advances and loans.

                      3. Imagine that you have been asked to write an article for an encyclopaedia on Britain and the history of cotton. Write your piece using information from the entire chapter.

                      Answer

                      Britain and the History of Cotton

                      During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, merchants would trade with rural people in textile production. A clothier would buy wool from a wool stapler, carry it to the spinners, and then, take the yarn to the weavers, fuller and dyers for further levels of production. London was the finishing centre for these goods. This phase in British manufacturing history is known as proto-industrialisation. In this phase, factories were not an essential part of industry. What was present instead was a network of commercial exchanges.

                      The first symbol of the new era of factories was cotton. Its production increased rapidly in the late nineteenth century. Imports of raw cotton sky-rocketed from 2.5 million pounds in 1760 to 22 million pounds in 1787. This happened because of the invention of the cotton mill and new machines, and better management under one roof. Till 1840, cotton was the leading sector in the first stage of industrialisation.

                      Most inventions in the textile production sector were met with disregard and hatred by the workers because machines implied less hand labour and lower employment needs. The Spinning Jenny was one such invention. Women in the woollen industry opposed and sought to destroy it because it was taking over their place in the labour market.

                      Before such technological advancements, Britain imported silk and cotton goods from India in vast numbers. Fine textiles from India were in high demand in England. When the East India Company attained political power, they exploited the weavers and textile industry in India to its full potential, often by force, for the benefit of Britain. Later, Manchester became the hub of cotton production. Subsequently, India was turned into the major buyer of British cotton goods.

                      During the First World War, British factories were too busy providing for war needs. Hence, demand for Indian textiles rose once again. The history of cotton in Britain is replete with such fluctuations of demand and supply.

                      4. Why did industrial production in India increase during the First World War?

                      Answer

                      India witnessed increased industrial production during the First World War due to following reasons:
                      → British industries became busy in producing and supplying war-needs. Hence, they stopped exporting British goods or clothes for colonial markets like that in India.
                      → It was a good opportunity for Indian industries to fill in empty Indian markets with their products. It was done so. Therefore, industrial production in India increased.
                      → Also the British colonial government asked Indian factories to supply the war needs like - jute bags, cloth or army uniforms, tents and leather boots, horse and mule saddle, etc.
                      → The increased demands of variety of products led to the setting up of new factories and old ones increased their production.
                      → Many new workers were employed and everyone was made to work longer hours.

                      Go Back To NCERT Solutions for Class 10 History

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Exercise 5.2

                      $
                      0
                      0

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Exercise 5.2

                      NCERT Solutions of Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Exercise 5.2 is provided here that will improve your problem solving skills and completing your homework. NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths are updated according to the latest pattern of CBSE so you can easily find your desired solutions. NCERT Solutions are the best way to explore the whole chapter and understand what the chapter is all about and important points.

                      Ex 5.2 contains only two questions about rewriting Euclid’s fifth postulate so that it would be easier to understand, verify if Euclid’s fifth postulate imply the existence of parallel lines.

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 5 Introduction to Euclid's Geometry Exercise 5.2

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines and Angles Exercise 6.1

                      $
                      0
                      0

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines and Angles Exercise 6.1

                      Chapter 6 Lines and Angles Exercise 6.1 NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths will help you in exploring the chapter's concepts. You can practice these Class 9 Maths NCERT Solutions to improve your marks in the examinations and strengthen your skills for higher classes. These NCERT questions and answers are prepare by Studyrankers experts who have taken every care to make it detailed so understand the concepts easily.

                      Ex 6.1 has total six questions in which maximum question is about proving a given statement and figures.

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines and Angles Exercise 5.3 Part 1

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines and Angles Exercise 5.3 Part 2

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines and Angles Exercise 5.3 Part 3

                      NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 6 Lines and Angles Exercise 5.3 Part 4

                      Viewing all 6196 articles
                      Browse latest View live


                      <script src="https://jsc.adskeeper.com/r/s/rssing.com.1596347.js" async> </script>