Women, Caste and Reform Extra Questions Chapter 8 Class 8 History

Chapter 8 Women, Caste and Reform Class 8 History Extra Questions which is very helpful in preparing for the exams and scoring more marks. Extra Questions for Class 8 will help in understanding the concepts of the chapter properly.

Chapter 8 Women, Caste and Reforms Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. How did reformers bring changes in society?

Answer

Reformers brought changes in society by persuading people to give up old practices and adopt a new way of life.

2. Who was Keshub Chander Sen?

Answer

Keshub Chander Sen was one of the main leaders of the Brahmo Samaj.

3. Who were known as Vaishyas?

Answer

Traders and moneylenders were known as Vaishyas.

4. Who was Mumtaz Ali?

Answer

Mumtaz Ali was a social reformer who reinterpreted verses from the Koran to argue for the education of women.

5. Why are social reformers described so?

Answer

Social reformers are described so because they felt that some changes were essential in society and unjust practices needed to be rooted out.

6. What was hook swinging festival?

Answer

In this festival, devotees underwent a peculiar form of suffering as part of ritual worship. With looks pierced through their skin they swung themselves on a wheel.

7. Who published the book named Stripurushtulna? What is it about?

Answer

Tarabai Shinde published Stripuru¬shtulna. It is about the social differences between men afid women.

8. Why do people view leather workers with contempt?

Answer

Leather workers work with dead animals which are seen as dirty and polluting. Hence, people see them with contempt.

9. How did widow’s home at Poona help the widows?

Answer

It trained them so that they could manage financial support for themselves.

10. Who were Madigas?

Answer

Madigas were experts at cleaning hides, tanning them for use and sewing sandals.

11. What was the Satyashodhak Samaj? Who founded it?

Answer

The Satyashodhak Samaj was an association that propagated caste equality. It was founded by Jyotirao Phule.

12. Why were untouchable students not allowed to enter the classrooms where upper-caste boys were taught?

Answer

There was a false notion among the upper-caste that untouchables would pollute the rooms where their children were taught.

13. What did the Child Marriage Restraint Act state?

Answer

According to Child Marriage Restraint Act, no man below the age of 18 and woman below the age of 16 could marry.

14. Name the Hindu scriptures that were criticised by Periyar.

Answer

The codes of Manu, the ancient law given and the Bhagavad Gita and the Ramayana.

15. What was the Satyashodhak Samaj? Who founded it?

Answer

The Satyashodhak Samaj was an association that propagated caste equality. It was founded by Jyotirao Phule.

16. What was aim behind Ambedkar led temples entry?

Answer

Ambedkar's aim was to make everyone see the power of caste prejudices within society.

Chapter 8 Women, Caste and Reforms Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. Why was Ramaswamy Naicker critical of the national movement and Hindu scriptures?

Answer

Ramaswamy Naicker felt proud of being a member of the Congress. But he left it in extreme disappointment when he found that at a feast organised by nationalists, seating arrangements followed caste distinctions. The lower caste people were made to sit at a distance from the upper caste people. He felt greatly hurt that even the national movement was not from caste prejudices. Naicker was highly critical of Hindu scriptures such a code of Manu, the ancient law-giver, and the Bhagavad Gita and the Ramayana. He said that these texts had been used to establish the authority of Brahmans over lower castes and the domination of men over women.

2. Give an account of the movement that spread in different parts of the country in favour of widow remarriage. Did the movement get success?

Answer

The movement in favour of widow remarriage spread in different parts of the country by the second half of the 19th century. Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage in the Telugu- speaking areas of the Madras Presidency. Around the same time young intellectuals and reformers in Bombay pledged themselves to work for the same cause. In the north the founder of the Arya Samaj Swami Dayanand Saraswati also supported widow remarriage.

However, the movement did not get much success. The number of widows who actually remarried remained low. Those who remarried were not easily accepted in the society. The conservative people never approved the new law.

3. What did Raja Rammohun Roy do to end the practice of sati?

Answer

Raja Rammohun Roy was a great social reformer. He moved to see the tyranny of old practices that were deeply rooted in the Indian society. Burning of widows on the funeral pyre of their husbands was one such old practice which, Rammohun Roy felt, needed to be rooted out immediately. He began a campaign against this. As he had deep knowledge of Sanskrit, Persian and several other Indian and European languages, die tried to show through his writings that the practice of sati had no sanction in ancient texts. He got support from the British offocials who had also begun to criticise Indian traditions and customs by the early 19th century. Finally, in 1829, the practice of sati was banned.

4. What was Sati? How was it banned and by whose efforts?

Answer

Sati was one of the evil practices of Indian society. Sati, meaning virtuous women, chose death by burning themselves on the funeral pyre of their husbands. Raja Rammohan Roy, a great social reformer, was against the practice of sati. He began a campaign against this practice. He was well-versed in Sanskrit, Persian and several other Indian and European languages. He tried to show through his writings that the practice of widow burning had no sanction in ancient texts. By the early nineteenth century, many British officials had also begun to criticism Indian traditions and customs. They listened to Rammohan Roy and finally in 1929, sati was banned.

5. What do you know about Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai? What did they do for improving the condition of women.

Answer

Tarabai Shinde was a woman who got education at home at Poona. She is better known for publishing a book named Stripurushtulna meaning a comparison between women and men. She, in this book, criticises the social differences between men and women. Pandita Ramabai was a great scholar of Sanskrit. She found Hinduism very oppressive towards women and wrote a book about the pathetic condition of Hindu women belonging to upper caste. She started a widow’s home at Poona to provide shelter to widows who had been maltreated by their husband’s relatives. Here women were given training to make them self-dependent.

6. Give a brief description of movements that were organised by people from within the lower castes against caste discrimination.

Answer

By the second half of the 19th century, people from within the lower castes began to raise voice against caste discrimination. They organised movements against this practice and demanded social equality and justice. The Satnami movement became famous in Central India. It was initiated by Ghasidas, who came from a low caste, worked among the leather workers and organised a movement to improve their social status. In Eastern Bengal, Haridas Thakur’s Matua sect worked among low caste Chandala cultivators. Haridas questioned Brahmanical texts that supported the caste discrimination. Shri Narayana Guru belonged to Ezhavas, a low caste in present-day Kerala. He proclaimed the ideals unity of all people within one sect, a single caste and one god. By organising these movements the leaders coming from low-caste tried to create awareness amongst the lower castes.

Chapter 8 Women, Caste and Reforms Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Give an account of various reform associations and movements founded by Indian reformers at different places in the country.

Answer

Many reformers came forward to uproot the unjust practices that crippled Indian society. They founded reform associations at different places in the country to see their dreams come true.

• The Brahmo Samaj: It was formed in 1830 and prohibited all forms of idolatry and sacrifice. It believed in the Upanishads and forbade its members from criticising other religious practices.

• The Ramakrishna Mission: Named after Ramakrishna Paramhansa, Swami Vivekananda’s guru, the

Ramakrishna Mission stressed the ideal of salvation through social service and selfless action.

• The Prarthana Samaj: It was established in 1867 at Bombay. It sought to remove caste restrictions, abolish child marriage, encourage the education of women and end the ban on widow remarriage.

• The Veda Samaj: It was established in Madras in 1864. It worked to abolish caste distinctions, promote widow remarriage and women’s education. Its members condemned the superstitions and rituals of orthodox Hinduism.

• The Aligarh Movement: This movement was initiated by Sayyid Ahmed Khan, the founder of Aligarh Muslim University. The movement had an enormous impact in the area of educational reform.

2. How did women involve themselves in their upliftment?

Answer

By the end of the 19th century, Indian women themselves began to work for their upliftment. They began to get higher education in universities. Some of them trained to be doctors, some became teachers. Many women began to write and publish their critical views on the status of women in society. The name of Tarabai Shinde is worth-mentioning here. She got education at home at Poona. She published a book, Stripurushtulna, meaning a comparison between men and women. She criticised the social differences between men and women. Another woman, Pandita Ramabai, was a great scholar of Sanskrit.

She criticised Hinduism which was so oppressive towards women. She wrote a book about the miserable lives of upperrcaste Hindu women. She established a widow home at Poona to provide shelter to widows who had been ill-treated in their families. From the early 20th century, Muslim women such the Begums of Bhopal and Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain played active role in spreading education among Muslim girls. They founded schools for them. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossairi fearlessly criticised the conservative ideas. She argued that religious leaders of every faith accorded an inferior position to women.

The orthodox Hindus and Muslims got alarmed to see all this. Several Hindu nationalists felt that Hindu women were adopting Western ways which would corrupt Hindu culture and erode family values. Orthodox Muslims were equally worried about the impact of these changes. Unaware of all these, women, from the early 20th century, began to form political associations, pressure groups to push through laws for female suffrage and better health care and education for them. Some of them even joined various kinds of nationalist and socialist movements from the 1920s.

3. Why were changes necessary in Indian society?

Answer

Indian society had been a prey to many evil practices for a long time.

• Men and women were treated differently. Women were subjected to many restrictions. They were not allowed to go to schools. They were not allowed to choose their husbands. Child-marriage was an established custom in the society. Most children were married off at an earl age. Both Hindu and Muslim men could many more than one wife. In some parts of the country, sati was in practice. Those widows were praised who chose death by burning themselves on the funeral pyre of their husbands. Women’s rights to property were also restricted.

• One more evil practice that had crippled Indian society was that all people did not enjoy equal status. The upper-caste, consisted of Brahmans and Kshatriyas, availed all privileges. But other than these people were subjected to exploitation. The untouchables, who did menial works, were considered polluting. They were not allowed to enter temples, draw water from the well used by the upper castes. They were seen as inferior human beings.

• These evil customs and practices had eclipsed the progress of society. Hence, debates and discussions began to take place from the early 19th century, with the development of new forms of communications. For the first time, books, newspapers, magazines, leaflets and pamphlets were printed. They spread awareness among the common mass.

• Social reformers like Raja Rammohun Roy, Ishwarchander Vidyasagar, came forward and took initiatives to bring changes in society by abolishing the evil practices one after Another.

The Changing World of Visual Arts Extra Questions Class 8 History

The Changing world of Visual Arts Extra Questions for Class 8 History is help you in understanding the chapter in well manner and scoring high marks in the exams. Class 8 Extra Questions will be very helpful in encouraging students to learn new topics.

The Changing World of Visual Arts Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. Mention one feature of oil painting.

Answer

Oil painting enables artists to produce images that looked real.

2. What were the three categories of Imperial Art?

Answer

‘The Imperial Art’ that was prevalent in India during the British Colonial rule can be classified into three categories, namely Landscape painting, Portrait painting and History painting.

3. How did the picturesque style of painting depict India?

Answer

Picturesque style of painting depicted India as a quaint law, to be explored by travelling British artists, its landscape was rugged and wild and seemingly untamed by human hands.

4. Name the technique with which Indian artists were not very familiar.

Answer

Oil painting.

5. What was the theme of Raja Ravi Varma's paintings?

Answer

The theme of his paintings was based on Indian mythology. He dramatised on canvas scene after scene from the Ramayana and the Mahabharata.

6. In what way were colonial portraits different from those of existing Indian tradition of painting portraits?

Answer

Unlike the existing Indian tradition of painting portraits in miniature, colonial portrait were life-size images that looked life-like and real.

7. How did the figures in scroll painting look?

Answer

The figures in scroll paintings looked flat, not rounded.

8. What subjects did European artists in India choose to paint?

Answer

Their paintings emphasised the superiority of Britain its culture, its people, its power.

9. When was the Calcutta Art Studio established? What it produce?

Answer

The Calcutta Art Studio was established in the late-nineteenth century. It produced life-like images of eminent Bengali personalities as well as mythological pictures.

10. Name the two traditions of Imperial art that became very popular in colonial India.

Answer

Picturesque landscape painting and Portrait painting.

The Changing World of Visual Arts Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. What were the reasons that forced the scroll painters and potters to come to Kalighat?

Answer

There were several reasons behind this:

• The city was expanding as a commercial and administrative centre at this time.

• Colonial offices were coming up, new buildings and roads were being built, markets were being established.

• The city appeared as a place of opportunity where people could come to make a new living. Scroll painters and potters too came and settled in the city in the hope of new patrons and new buyers of their art.

2. What are miniature paintings?

Answer

Miniature paintings are executed on a very small scale on perishable material such as paper and cloth. The Palas of Bengal were the pioneers of miniature painting in India. The art of miniature painting reached its glory during the Mughal period. The tradition of miniature paintings was carried forward by the painters of different Rajasthani schools.

3. What were Company Paintings?

Answer

During the 18th and 19th centuries, the British employed Indian artists to illustrate the manners and customs of India and to record scenes of monuments, deities, festivals, and occupations. These works later became known as ‘Company paintings’ because they were created by Indian artists employed by members of the British East India Company.

4. Describe European artist’s style.

Answer

The paintings done by European Artists were realistic. They painted pictures that were exactly the same in reality. The paintings looked real and lifelike. European artists introduced the technique of oil painting which was unknown to the Indian artists. Oil paintings allow artists to produce pictures that looked real. The paintings done by European Artists highlighted the culture, the power and the people of Britain.

5. Mention the themes on which the Kalighat artists of the late-nineteenth century painted.

Answer

Many of the late-nineteenth century Kalighat paintings depicted social life under British rule. Often the artists mocked at the changes they saw around, ridiculing the new tastes of those who spoke in English and adopted western habits, dressed like sahibs, smoked cigarettes, or sat on chairs. They made fun of the westernised baboo, criticised the corrupt priests and warned against women moving out of their homes. They often expressed the anger of common people against the rich, and the fear many people had about dramatic changes of social norms.

6. Describe the paintings done by Robert Ker Porter on the battle of Seringapatam.

Answer

The celebration of British military triumph can be seen in the paintings of the battle of Seringapatam by Robert Ker Porter. This work depicts “the decisive victory of the British in their series of campaigns to seize control of southern India.

In these pictures the British troops are shown storming the fort from all sides, cutting Tipu’s soldiers to pieces, climbing the walls, raising the British flag aloft on the ramparts of Tipu’s fort. The paintings are full of action and energy. The painting dramatises the event and glorifies the British triumph.

The Changing World of Visual Arts Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Give a brief sketch of Thomas Daniell and his paintings.

Answer

• Thomas Daniell began his career as a landscape painter. In 1784 he came to India with his nephew William. They both remained in India for seven years. Together they executed a number of major works in engraving, oils and watercolours.

• The large oil paintings on canvas, done by them, were regularly exhibited to select audiences in Britain. Their albums of engravings were bought up by the British who wanted to know about Britain’s Empire.

• ‘Oriental Scenery’ is the title given to the monumental six-volume work of 144 hand-coloured engravings made by Thomas Daniell and his nephew William.

• The paintings by Thomas Daniell showed the ruins of local buildings that were once grand. The paintings seemed to reveal that India would change and modernise only through British governance.

• The idea of British rule bringing modern civilisation to India is powerfully emphasised in the numerous pictures of late-eighteenth-century Calcutta drawn by the Daniels.

2. How did the painters at Indian courts react to the new traditions of imperial art?

Answer

With the establishment of British power many of the local courts lost their influence and wealth. They could no longer support painters and pay them to paint for the court. As a result, many of the artists turned to the British. At the same time, British officials, who found the world in the colonies different from that back home, wanted images through which they could understand India, remember their life in Indian and depict India to the western world. So, these officials employed local painters to produce a vast number of images of local plants and animals, historical buildings and monuments, festivals and processions, trades and crafts, castes and communities.

The Making of the National Movement: 1870s-1947 Extra Questions Chapter 9 Class 8 History

Chapter 9 The Making of the National Movement: 1870s-1947 Extra Questions for Class 8 History is useful in knowing the important concepts inside the chapter. Class 8 Extra Questions can be used to score more marks in the exams.

The Making of the National Movement: 1870s-1947 Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. What was the Arms Act?

Answer

The Arms Act was passed in 1878. The Act disallowed Indians from possessing arms.

2. Under what pretext did the British divide Bengal?

Answer

The British divided Bengal under the pretext of administrative convenience.

3. Who was the Viceroy of India at the time of the partition of Bengal.

Answer

At that time Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India.

4. Name the three leading members of the Radical group.

Answer

Bepin Chandra Pal, Balgangadhar Tilak and Lala Lajpat Rai.

5. What role did AO Hume play in the history of India?

Answer

A.O. Hume played an important role in bringing Indians from the various regions together.

6. Name the lawyers who gave up their practices to support the Non-Cooperation Movement?

Answer

Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das, C. Rajagopalachari and Asaf Ali.

7. Who formed the All India Muslim League?

Answer

A group of Muslim landlords and nawabs formed the All India Muslim League at Decca in 1906.

8. What was the Ilbert Bill?

Answer

In 1833, the government introduced the Ilbert Bill, The bill provided for the trial of British or European persons by Indians, and sought equality between British and Indian judges in the country.

9. What was the Swadeshi Movement known as in deltaic Andhra?

Answer

In deltaic Andhra the Swadeshi Movement was known as the Vandemataram Movement.

10. Why did Rabindranath Tagore renounce his knighthood?

Answer

Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood to express the pain and anger of the country following the Jallianwala Bagh atrocities.

11. What does HSRA stand for?

Answer

HSRA stands for Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.

12. Who was Chitta Ranjan Das?

Answer

He was a lawyer from East Bengal and was active in the Non-Cooperation Movement.

13. Who were the leaders of the Khilafat agitation?

Answer

The leaders of the Khilafat agitation were Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.

14. Why did Mahatma Gandhi along with other Indians establish the Natal Congress in South Africa?

Answer

To fight against racial discrimination in South Africa.

15. Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to break the Salt Law?

Answer

Mahatma Gandhi decided to break the Salt Law because it established the monopoly of the state on the manufacture and sale of salt.

16. What does ‘Punjab wrongs’ refer to?

Answer

It refers to Jallianwalla Bagh massarcre that occurred on 13 April, 1919 in Amritsar on Baishakhi day.

17. Why did the Muslim League announced 16 August 1946 as ‘Direct Action Day’?

Answer

It announced 16 August, 1946 as ‘Direct Action Day’ in support of its demand for Pakistan.

18. On what condition-were the Congress leaders ready to support the British war effort at the time of the Second World War?

Answer

The Congress leaders were ready to support the British war effort on condition that they would declare India’s independence after the war.

The Making of the National Movement: 1870s-1947 Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. Who was Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan?

Answer

Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan was also known as Badshah Khan. He was the founder of the Khudai Khidmatgars, a powerful non-violent movement among the Pathans of his province. Badshah Khan was strongly opposed to the Partition of India. He criticised his Congress colleagues for agreeing to the 1947 division. He was also called the Pashtun leader from the North-West Frontier Province.

2. What caused the partition of Bengal in 1905?

Answer

At the time of partition Bengal was the biggest province of British India which comprised Bihar and parts of Orissa. The British argued for dividing Bengal for reasons of administrative convenience. But it was a totally false argument. In fact, the partition of Bengal was closely tied to the interests of British officials and businessmen. The British also wanted to curtail the influence of Bengali politicians and split the Bengali people. It was therefore, instead of removing the non-Bengali areas from the province, they separated East Bengal and merged it with Assam.

3. What was the Khilafat agitation?

Answer

In the year 1920 the British imposed a harsh treaty on the Turkish Sultan, known as Khalifa. It enraged people. Indian Muslims wanted that the Khalifa be allowed to retain control over Muslim sacred places in the erstwhile Ottoman empire. The leaders of the Khilafat agitation Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali, now wished to start a full-fledged Non-Cooperation Movement. They got support from Mahatma Gandhi who urged the Congress to campaign against “Punjab wrongs’, the Khilafat wrong and demand swaraj.

4. Why was the Simon Commission sent to India? Why did Indians boycott it?

Answer

The British government in England sent a Commission headed by Lord Simon in the year 1927 to decide India’s political future. As the Commission had no Indian representative, it was boycotted by all political groups. When the Commission arrived it met with demonstrations with banners saying ‘Simon Go Back’.

5. How did the First World War change the economic situation in India?

Answer

The First World War completely changed the economic situation in India.

• It led to a huge rise in the defence expenditure of the Government of India. As a result, the government increased taxes on individual incomes and business profits.

• Military expenditure and the demands for war supplies increased sharply. This led to a sharp rise in prices which made the life of the common people miserable.

• But it was a good time for the business groups. They reaped lucrative profits from the war. The war created demand for industrial goods such as jute bags, cloth, rails, etc. and caused a decline of imports from other countries into India. So, Indian industries expanded during the war.

6. What were the consequences of the partition of Bengal?

Answer

• The partition of Bengal enraged people all over the country. Both the Moderates and the Radicals in the Congress opposed this action of the British.

• Public meetings and demonstrations began to be organised. Novel methods of mass protest were also developed. They struggled against the partition of Bengal came to be known as Swadeshi Movement. In Bengal this movement was the strongest. In other regions such as in deltaic Andhra the movement was called the Vandemataram Movements.

7. What role did Ambabai play in the Indian freedom struggle?

Answer

Ambabai came from Karnataka. She had been married at age twelve and was widowed at sixteen. Afterwards she began participating in the Indian freedom struggle. She picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops in Udipi. She was arrested, served a sentence and was rearrested. Between prison terms she made powerful speeches, taught spinning and organised prabhat pheris.

8. How did people participate in the Non-Cooperation Movement during 1921-22?

Answer

• During these years, thousands of students left government controlled schools and colleges.

• Many lawyers such as Motilal Nehru, C.R. Das, C. Rajagopalachari and Asaf Ali gave up their practices.

• British titles were surrendered and legislatures boycotted.

• People lit public bonfires of foreign cloth.

The Making of the National Movement: 1870s-1947 Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Under what circumstances did Gandhiji initiate the Quit India Movement?

Answer

• In September 1939, the Second World War broke out. The. British government in India needed help from the Indian leaders. The leaders were ready to support the British war effort. But in return they wanted that India be granted independence after the war. The British refused to accept the demand. This enraged the Congress ministries. They all resigned to show their protest.

• Mahatma Gandhi was deeply perturbed. He now decided to initiate a new phase of movement against the British rule in the middle of the Second World War. This movement came to be known as the Quit India Movement. Gandhiji thought that the British must Quit India without further delay. He raised the slogan ‘do or die’ which spread among the common mass very soon. But at the same time he warned the people not to be violent in any condition.

• The British took repressive measures. Gandhiji along with other leaders were sent to jail immediately. But this did not prevent the movement from spreading. It specially attracted peasants and the youth who gave up their studies to join the movement. Communications and symbols of state authority were attacked all over the country. In several areas people set up their own governments.

• The British tried to repress these developments severely. About 90,000 people were arrested and wound 1,000 killed in police firing. But the movement did not go in vain. It brought freedom very close.

2. Give a detailed descriptions of the Non-Cooperation Movement. How people from different parts of took part in this movement?

Answer

The Non-Cooperation Movement against the British started in 1920 which gained momentum through 1921-22. The people of different classes and groups came forward and began interpreting Gandhiji’s call in their own manner. A large mass of people resisted British role non-violently but others’ technique of protest was violent. But in either ease, people linked their movements to local grievances.

• In Kheda, Gujarat, Patidar peasants organised non- violent campaigns against the highland revenue demand of the British.

• In coastal Andhra and interior Tamil Nadu, liquor shops were picketed. In the Guntur district of Andhra Pradesh, tribal and poor peasants protested because the colonial state had restricted their use of forest resources in various ways. They believed that Gandhiji would get their taxes reduced and have the forest regulations abolished.

• In Sind (present-day Pakistan), Musluim traders and peasants were enthusiastic about the Khilafat call. In Bengal, the Khilafat Non- Cooperation alliance gave enormous communal unity and strength to the national movement.

• In Punjab, the Akali agitation of the Sikhs sought to remove corrupt mahantas, who were supported by the British. This movement got closely identified with the Non-Cooperation Movement.

• In Assam, tea garden labourers left the British owned plantations and joined Mahatma Gandhi.

3. What were the demands of the Congress in its early years?

Answer

In its early years the Congress was moderate in its objectives and methods. It made several demands; which were:

• The Congress demanded a greater voice for Indians in the government and in administration.

• It demanded that Indians be placed in high positions in the government. For this purpose it called for Civil Service examinations to be held in India as well, not just in London.

• The Congress demanded for the separation of the judiciary from the executive.

• The repeal of the Arms Act and the freedom of speech and expression was also a major demand of the Congress.

• It also demanded reduction of revenue, cut in military expenditure and more funds for irrigation.

India After Independence Extra Questions Chapter 10 Class 8 History

Chapter 10 India After Independence Extra Questions for Class 8 History can be used to improve your marks and prepare for exams in a best way. Class 8 Extra Questions provided here will help you in grasping important concepts of the chapter properly.

India After Independence Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. Who was Potti Sriramulu?

Answer

Potti Sriramulu was a Gandhian leader. He went on a hunger strike demanding the formation of Andhra state to protect the interests of Telugu speakers.

2. Which step has been described as revolutionary?

Answer

All Indians above the age of 21 would be allowed to vote in state and national elections.

3. When was the Indian Constitution adopted?

Answer

The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26 January, 1950.

4. How did people of India view the Bhili Steel Plant?

Answer

The Bhilai Steel Plant was considered an important sign of the development of modern India after Independence.

5. Why did Nathuram Godse assassinate Mahatma Gandhi?

Answer

Because he disagreed with Gandhiji’s conviction that Hindus and Muslims should live together in harmony.

6. What was the basic objective of the foreign policy of Independent India?

Answer

The basic objective of the foreign policy of Independent India was non-alignment, i.e. the American and Soviet alliances.

7. What did the non-aligned Movement urge countries of the world?

Answer

The non-aligned movement urged countries not to join either of the two major alliances named the USA and the USSR.

8. What happened when Potti Sriramulu died during unger fast?

Answer

The protests became widespread and intense. Finally, the central government had to accept their demand. And on 1 October 1953, the new state of Andhra Pradesh came into being.

9. What would happen if the economic development did not reach the common masses?

Answer

If economic development did not reach the common masses, it could widen the gap between the rich and the poor, between cities and the countryside, between the prosperous regions the and the poor regions.

10. Mention the period that witnessed the emergence of the cold war.

Answer

The 1950s and 1960s saw the emergence of the Cold War, i.e. power rivalries and ideological conflicts between the USA and USSR.

India After Independence Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. What was the label of development of India at the time it got independence?

Answer

At the time India got independence the label of its development was veiy low. A vast majority of Indians lived in the villages. Farmers and peasants depended on the monsoon for their survival. So did the non-farm sector of the rural economy, for if the crops failed, barbers, carpenters, weavers and other service groups would not get paid for their services either.

In the cities too the condition was not good. Factory workers usually lived in crowded slums. They had little access to education and health care.

2. What created problems in unifying the people of India after it got independence?

Answer

The points that created problems were:

• At the time of independence, India’s population was large. It was divided too. There were divisions between high castes and low castes, between the majority Hindu community and Indians who practised other faiths.

• The citizen of this country spoke different languages, wore different kinds of dresses, ate different kinds of foods and practised different professions.

3. What was the purpose of setting up a Planning Commission?

Answer

• At the time of Independence, poverty was widespread in India. Lifting India and its people out of this problem was a big task. Equally big task was to build a modern technical and industrial base for the country.

• To work out these tasks the government set up a Planning Commission in 1950. The Commission helped in formulating and executing suitable economic policies for development.

• There was a broad agreement on what was called a ‘mixed economy’ model. Here, both the state and the private sector would play important and complementary roles in increasing production and generating.

4. What special privileges were offered for the poorest and most disadvantaqed Indians by the constitution?

Answer

First of all the practice of untouchability was abolished. Hindu temples were thrown open to all including the former untouchables.

• A certain percentage of seats in legislatures as well as jobs in government were reserved for members of the lowest castes.

• Alongwith the former untouchables, the adivasis also known as the Scheduled Tribes were also granted reservation in seats and jobs. They too had been deprived and discriminated against like the Scheduled Castes.

5. Under what circumstances a compromise was made with respect to language?

Answer

Several members of the Constituent Assembly believed that the English language should be driven out of India with the British rule. They were of the opinion that Hindi should take place of English language. However, those who did not speak Hindi were of different opinion. T.T. Krishnamachari on behalf of the people of the south strongly opposed Hindi. Some threatened to separate from India if Hindi was imposed on them. Finally, a compromise was made. It was decided that while Hindi would be the ‘official language’ of India, English would be used in the courts, the services, and communications between one state and another.

6. Mention the problems that the newly independent nation of India faced.

Answer

The problems that the newly independent nation of India faced were:

• The problem of rehabilitation of 8 million refugees who had come into the country from newly formed Pakistan.

• Then there was the problem of the princely states. The number of such states were about 500. Each of them was ruled by maharaja or a nawab. The government had to persuade each of them to join the new nation.

• The new nation had to adopt a political system that would best serve the hopes and expectation of its population which was so large and diverse. The first two problems had to be addressed immediately.

7. Describe three lists of the subjects provided by the Indian Contitution?

Answer

Our Constitution provides three lists of subjects in order to bring a balance between the powers and functions of the central government and the state government. These lists are:

(i) Union List: Subjects such as taxes, defence and foreign affairs would be the exclusive responsibility of the centre.

(ii) State List: Subjects such as education and health would be taken care of principally by the states.

(iii) Concurrent List: The subject such an forest, agriculture list. These are subjects in which the centre and the states would have joint responsibility.

India After Independence Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Write in brief the process of state formation.

Answer

• The Congress leaders were in no mood to further divide the country on linguistic lines. This created great disappointment among the Kannada speakers, Malayalam speakers, and the Marathi speakers, and the Telugu speakers, because they had all looked forward to having their own state.

• The Telugu speakers, however, showed the strongest protests. Their leader Potti Sriramulu went on a hunger fast demanding the formation of Andhra state to protect the interests of Telugu speakers. As the fast went on, it attracted much Hartals and bandhs began to be observed. Meanwhile, Potti Sriramulu died. This incidence intensified the situation. The protests took intense form. This forced the Central Government to give in to the demand and the new state of Andhra Pradesh came into existence on 1 October, 1953.

• After the formation of Andhra Pradesh, other linguistic communities also demanded their own separate states. Hence, a State Reorganisation Commission was set up, which submitted its report in 1956. It recommended the redrawing of district and provincial boundaries to form compact provinces of Assamese, Bengali, Oriya, Tamil, Malayalam, Kannada and Telugu speakers respectively.

• The large Hindi-speaking region of north India was broken up into several states. Then in 1960, the bilingual state of Bombay was divided into separate states for Marathi and Gujarati speakers. In the year 1960, the state of Punjab was also divided into Punjab and Haryana, Punjab for the Punjabi speakers and Haryana for the rest who spoke Haryanvi or Hindi.

2. Give a detailed descriptions of the features of the Indian Constitution.

Answer

• One feature of the Indian Costitution was that it adopted universal adult franchise. All Indians above the age of 21 (now 18) would be allowed to vote in state and national elections.

• Our Constitution guaranteed equality before the law to all citizens, regardless of their caste or religious affiliation.

• The Constitution offered special privileges for the poorest and most disadvantaged Indians. The evil practice of untouchability was abolished. Hindu temples were thrown open to all, including the former untouchables. After a long debate, the Constituent Assembly also recommended that a certain percentage of seats in legislatures as well as jobs in government be reserved for members of the lowest castes, including the adivasis.

• Our Constitution clearly defined the powers and functions of the central and the state governments. It gave division of power in the form of three lists—a Union List with subjects such as taxes, defence and foreign affairs, which would be the exclusive responsibility of the Centre, a State List of subjects such as education and health, which would be taken care of mainly by the States, a Concurrent List under which would come subjects such as forests and agriculture in which the Centre and the States would have joint responsibility.

3. Give an account of the successes and failures of the country during sixty-two years of its independence.

Answer

Sixty-two years of independence have passed. This duration covers a long journey. A lot have been achieved during this time. But at the same time there have been a number of failures.

Successes :

• India is still united and it is still democratic. These achievements definitely make us proud. Many foreign observers had felt that India could not survive as a single country. Others believed that it would come under military rule. Neither of these predictions proved to be true. As many as thirteen general elections have been held since independence, as well as hundreds of state and local elections.

• There is a free press and an idependent judicially.

• The fact that people speak different languages or practise different faiths has not come in the way of national unity.

Failures:

• Deep divisions are still there. Despite constitutional guarantees, people belonging to the lowest castes, such as dalits face violence and discrimination. In many parts of rural India they are not allowed access to water sources, temples, parks and other public places.

• The gulf between the rich and the poor has grown over the years. Some groups of people avail all facilities while many others continue to live below the poverty line.

• Our Constitution provides equality before the law but in real life this does not happen. Some Indians are more equal than others.

Resources Extra Questions Chapter 1 Class 8 Geography

Chapter 1 Resources Class 8 Geography Extra Questions provided here is very useful in increasing concentration among students and increasing marks. Extra Questions for Class 8 will help you in understanding the concepts of the chapter properly.

Chapter 1 Resources Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. What are natural resources?

Answer

Resources that are drawn directly from nature are called natural resources.

2. What is the condition for a substance to be called a resource?

Answer

A substance needs to have some utility to be called a resource.

3. How are resources classified according to their distribution?

Answer

On the basis of their distribution, resources are classified into ubiquitous and localized.

4. What is the name given to the type of resources that have limited stock?

Answer

The resources having limited stock are called non-renewable resources.

5. Where are biotic resources derived from?

Answer

Biotic resources are derived from living things.

6. What do you understand by the word utility?

Answer

If a substance can be used in any way, it is said to have a utility.

7. What is human resource development?

Answer

Improving the quality of human skills in order to make them more useful is called human resource development.

8. What helps in making people a valuable resource?

Answer

Education and skill help in making people a valuable resource.

9. How are human-made resources different from natural resources?

Answer

Human-made resources have been created by human beings, whereas natural resources are provided by nature.

10. What is meant by sustainable development?

Answer

Sustainable development mean carefully utilising resources so that besides meeting the requirements of the present, also takes care of future generations.

Chapter 1 Resources Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. What is a resource? What are the criteria for any substance to become a resource?

Answer

All those substances which have some utility or usability are resources for us.

The different criteria required for anything to be resource for us are:

• Utility or usability

• Economic value or any other value

• Time and technology inherent, which can make the substance important for present or future requirements of the people. For example, Discovery of fire led to the practice of cooking, Invention of wheel ultimately resulted in the development of newer modes of transport etc.

2. As human beings, how can we ensure sustainable development?

Answer

We can ensure sustainable development by ensuring that:

• The usage of renewable resources is sustainable,

• The diversity of life on earth is maintained,

• The damage caused to nature by our activities is as low as possible.

3. Explain how resources are classified broadly.

Answer

Resources are broadly classified into natural, human-made and human.

• Natural resources are those that are taken from nature. They are used without modifying them, i.e. in the same form as they exist in. Examples include rivers, lakes, air, soils, minerals, trees, mountains, etc. are natural resources.

• Human-made resources have not been provided to us by nature. Human beings have used their intelligence to manufacture them for their own use. Examples include vehicles, buildings, roads, telephone, etc.

• Human resources include people who serve us in any way. Example include a teacher, doctor, etc.

4. Explain the terms resource conservation and sustainable development.

Answer

Resource conservation is the concept of using resources carefully so that they do not end up quickly. The future generations also need the resources, but if we keep using them at a fast pace, they may end up, thus posing problems for the future. We should use resources in such a balanced way that we satisfy our needs as well as conserve them for future. This concept is called sustainable development.

Chapter 1 Resources Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. What is sustainable development? Mention some of its principles.

Answer

Sustainable development is a utilising resource in such a way that we not only think of meeting our own requirements of the present but also we are aware of their conservation for our future generations.

Some principles of sustainable development:

• Respect and care for all forms of life.

• Improve the quality of human life.

• Conserve the earth’s vitality and diversity.

• Minimise the depletion of natural resources.

• Change personal attitude and practices towards the environment.

• Enable communities to care for their own environment.

2. Describe how resources are classified.

Answer

Resources are broadly classified into natural, human-made and human.

• Natural resources are those that are taken from nature. They are used without modifying them, i.e. in the same form as they exist in. Rivers, lakes, air, soils, minerals, trees, mountains, etc. are natural resources.

• Human resources include people who serve us in any way. A teacher, doctor, carpenter, cobbler, etc are human resources.

On the basis of level of development, a resource can be actual or potential.

• An actual resource is one which is used currently. We know their quantity.

• A potential resource is one whose utility is not known at present or is not used despite having utility; instead it may be useful at some time in future. It means that it has the potential to have utility, although it does not have any today.

On the basis of origin, a resource can be abiotic or biotic.

• A biotic resource is the one that has life.

• A abiotic resource is non-living.

Natural resources may also be classified as renewable and non-renewable.

• A renewable resource can be used without any risk of its ending up. They exist in unlimited quantity.

• On the other hand, use of non-renewable resources need to be controlled since once they end up, they cannot be renewed.

On the basis of distribution, a resource can be ubiquitous or localized.

• A ubiquitous resource is found everywhere.

• A localized resource is however found in certain parts of the world only.

Bihar Board BSEB Class 12 Datesheet 2020-21| Exam Dates and Time Table

Bihar Board has released BSEB Class 12 Datesheet 2020-21. Chairman of Bihar School Examination Board, Anand Kishore said that as per the examination schedule, Class 12 Intermediate Board Examination 2021 will be conducted from 1st February 2021 to 13th February 2021. The Board Examination 2021 will be conducted in two shifts, ie, the first shift will be conducted from 09:30 am to 12:45 pm and the second shift exam will be conducted from 01:45 pm to 05:00 pm.

Earlier this examination was scheduled to be held from 3rd February to 13th February. Board President Anand Kishore had said on 11 November 2020 that the examination date of the three faculty of the annual examination has been changed due to unavoidable reasons.

Intermediate practical examinations will be held in the month of January from 09 January 2021 to 18 January 2021.

Bihar Board BSEB Class 12 Datesheet 2020-21 1

Bihar Board BSEB Class 12 Datesheet 2020-21 2

Bihar Board BSEB Class 10 Datesheet 2020-21| Exam Dates and Time Table

Bihar Board has released BSEB Class 10 Datesheet 2020-21. The Class 10 Board exam will commence from 17th February 2021 and will end on 24th February 2021. The Class 10 Board Examination 2021 will be conducted in two shifts, ie, the first shift will be conducted from 09:30 am to 12:45 pm and the second shift exam will be conducted from 01:45 pm to 05:00 pm. The board will provide 15 minutes to students to read the question paper and instructions properly.

Visually impaired or handicapped students who are unable to write on their own are allowed to keep writers by the committee. Also, these students will get an extra 20 minutes per hour to complete the paper.

Check Bihar Board BSEB Class 10 Datesheet 2020-21

Dates	First Sitting	Second Sitting
February 17, 2021	Science	Science
February 18, 2021	Mathematics	Mathematics
February 19, 2021	Social Science	Social Science
February 20, 2021	English (General)	English (General)
February 22, 2021	First Language (Hindi, Urdu, Bengali and Maithili)	First Language (Hindi, Urdu, Bengali and Maithili)
February 23, 2021	Second Language (Hindi, Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian and Bhojpuri)	Second Language (Hindi, Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian and Bhojpuri)
February 24, 2021	Optional Subjects (Advanced Mathematics, Economics, Commerce, Sanskrit, Maithili, Persian and Arabic)	Optional Subjects (Advanced Mathematics, Economics, Commerce, Sanskrit, Maithili, Persian and Arabic)

JEE Main 2021 to be conducted from Feb 22 to 25, Registration Starts

The National Testing Agency (NTA) is going to conduct JEE Main 2021 as it has released the information brochure. Eligible candidates can register online for the JEE Main 2021 exam at jeemain.nta.nic.in. According to the National Testing Agency (NTA) information brochure, the last date to register for JEE Main 2021 is January 15, 2021. Candidates will be allowed to pay their JEE Main 2021 application fee till January 16, 2021.

Earlier JEE Main entrance exam has been conducted twice a year. But this time JEE Main 2021 will be held four times. The first session will take place from 23 February to 26 February 2021. The second session will be followed by March, the third in April and the fourth in May. This decision has been taken so that the board examinations of different states held at different times do not obstruct the conduct of JEE Main examination.

Admit Cards for the first session of JEE Main 2021 will be released in the first week of January. The exam will be in two shifts. The first shift will be from 9 am to 12 noon and the second shift will be from 3 pm to 6 pm.

The number of questions that used to come in JEE Main earlier, this time too will come. All candidates appearing for JEE-Main 2021 will need to attempt 75 questions out of 90 or 25 out of questions 30 in each section of Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics. Earlier, students have no choice of attempting questions.

The JEE Main exam will now be held in a total of 13 languages - English, Hindi, Gujarati, Bangla, Assamese, Kannada, Marathi, Malayalam, Oriya, Tamil, Urdu, Telugu, Punjabi. Till now the JEE examination has been conducted in English, Hindi, Gujarati.

Land, Soil, Water, Natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Extra Questions Chapter 2 Class 8 Geography

Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Class 8 History Extra Questions will be very helpful in understanding the basic concepts of the chapter in a well manner. Through the help of Extra Questions for Class 8 Social Science, you will be able to improve your marks in the examinations.

Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. What human factors determine land use pattern?

Answer

Human factors affecting land use pattern are population and technology.

2. What are the possible reasons behind the uneven distribution of population around the world?

Answer

The reasons behind uneven population distribution are mainly the varied conditions of land and climate.

3. Define soil.

Answer

The thin layer of grainy substance covering the surface of the earth is called soil.

4. What is required to make soil fertile?

Answer

The right mix of minerals and organic matter is needed to make soil fertile.

5. What are the factors threatening soil as a resource?

Answer

Two factors that threaten soil as a resource are soil erosion and its depletion.

6. Why is the earth called the “water planet”?

Answer

The earth’s surface has about three- fourths water, so it is called “water planet”.

7. What is parent rock?

Answer

The rock from which soil is derived is called parent rock.

8. What is the name given to the process involved in rain formation?

Answer

The process involved in the formation of rain is called “water cycle”.

9. What is the distinguishing feature between evergreen and deciduous forests?

Answer

Evergreen forests never shed their leaves whereas deciduous forests shed their leaves once a year.

10. How is a bird like vulture important for the ecosystem?

Answer

A vulture feeds on dead livestock and so it cleanses the environment.

11. What is the Vanamahotsava?

Answer

The social programme of planting trees, organised at community level is called vanamahotsava.

12. Name a method to save surface run-off.

Answer

Water harvesting is a method to save surface run-off.

13. Why do people living in different parts of the world lead very different lives?

Answer

Because of the differences in quality of land, soil, water, natural vegetation, animals and the usage of technology.

14. Why is the Ganga-Brahmaputra plain of India is an overpopulated region?

Answer

The Ganga-Brahmaputra plain of India offers a suitable land for agriculture. Hence, people choose to live there in large number.

Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. What is weathering?

Answer

Weathering refers to the breaking up and decay of exposed rocks. This breaking up and decay is caused by temperature fluctuations between too high and too low, frost action, plants, animals and even human activity. Weathering is the major process involved in the formation of soil. It takes millions of years to form soil by this process.

2. Write a short note on wildlife.

Answer

The animal kingdom, which consists of animals, birds, aquatic creatures and insects, is called wildlife. These creatures provide us various important products such as milk, meat, hides and wool. Bees give us honey and help in pollination. They play the role of decomposers in the environment. Birds like the vulture are scavengers and they help in cleansing the environment. All forms of wildlife are an integral part of our ecosystem.

3. What are the major types of vegetation in the world? Describe vegetation in different rainfall conditions.

Answer

The major types of vegetation in the world are grouped as forests, grasslands, scrubs and tundra.” In areas of heavy rain, huge trees can be found. Forests are abundant in areas of heavy rainfall. With moisture and rainfall the density of forests declines. In moderate rainfall areas, grasslands are found. In dry areas we find thorny shrubs and scrubs. Plants here have deep roots and leaves have thorny surface to reduce loss of moisture. The tundra vegetation consists of mosses and lichens.

4. Classify land on the basis of ownership.

Answer

On the basis of ownership, land can be classified as:

• Private land: Private land is owned by individuals whereas, community land is owned by the community for common uses like collection of fodder, fruits, nuts or medicinal herbs.

• Community land: The community lands are also called common property resources.

5. How is land being degraded? Suggest methods to conserve land resource.

Answer

The ever-growing population has increased demand for living space, due to which forests are being destroyed, thus causing land degradation. The rate of degradation of land resources can be checked by promoting afforestation, land reclamation, regulated use of chemical pesticide and fertilizers and checking overgrazing.

6. Mention some mitigation techniques of landslides.

Answer

Three mitigation techniques of landslides are:

• Hazard mapping to locate areas prone to landslides. Hence, such areas can be avoided for building settlements.

• Construction of retention wall to stop land from shipping.

• Increase in the vegetation cover to check landslides.

• The surface drainage control works to control the movement of landslide along with rainwater and spring flows.

7. What is CITES? Why has it been established?

Answer

CITES stands for the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora. It is an international agreement between governments. It aims to ensure that international

trade in specimens of wild animals and 28,000 species of plants are protected. Bears, dolphins, cacti corals, orchids and aloes are some examples.

8. Why is it essential to conserve wildlife? Give three reasons.

Answer

Wildlife includes animals, birds, insects as well as the acquatic life forms. It is essential to conserve them because of the following reasons.

• We get several things such as milk, meat, hides and wool from animals.

• Insects like bees provide us honey, help in pollination of flowers and have an important role to play as decomposes in the ecosystem.

• The birds feed on insects and act as decomposers as well. Vulture due to its ability to feel on dead livestock is a scavenger and considered avital cleanser of the environment. So animals big or small, all are integral to maintaining balance in the ecosystem. Therefore, they need to be conserved.

Chapter 2 Land, Soil, Water, natural Vegetation and Wildlife Resources Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. What measures can be adopted to conserve water?

Answer

Water is a valuable natural resource. We can’t imagine a life without water. Hence, its conservation is important for all. The following measures can be adopted in this direction:

• Forest and other vegetation cover should be increased because they slow the surface runoff and replenish underground water.

• Water harvesting should be encouraged to save surface runoff.

• The canals used for irrigating fields should be properly lined to minimise losses by water seepage.

• Sprinklers should be used to irrigate the area by checking water losses through seepage and

evaporation.

• Drip or tickle irrigation method should be adopted in dry regions.

2. Describe methods of soil conservation.

Answer

Some common methods of soil conservation are mentioned below:

• Mulching. Mulching is the process of covering the bare ground between plants with a layer of organic matter like straw. It contributes in retaining soil moisture.

• Terrace Farming: Terrace farming is the method of farming in which broad flat steps or terraces are made on the steep slopes so that flat surfaces are available to grow crops 4 They reduce run-off and soil erosion.

• Intercropping: In intercropping, different crops are grown in alternate rows and are sown at different times to protect the soil from being washed away by rain.

• Contour Ploughing: Ploughing parallel to the contours of a hill slope to form a natural barrier for water to flow down a slope is called contour ploughing.

• Shelter Belts: Rows of trees that are planted in certain areas to check wind movement are called shelter belts.

• Contour Barriers: Stones, grass and soil are used to build barriers along contours. Trenches are made in front of the barriers to collect water.

• Rock Dams: This prevents gullies and further soil loss since rocks are piled up to slow down the flow of water.

JEE Main 2021 Eligibility, Syllabus, Admit Card, Result, Cut off and Important Dates

Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) - Main is a national level exam conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA) twice every year for the admissions in BE/BTech, B Plan and B Arch courses in prestigious institutes like IIT, NIT and various others Centrally Funded Technical Institutions (CFTIs). JEE Main 2021 will be conducted from 23rd to 26th February 2021 in two shifts everyday. According to the National Testing Agency (NTA) information brochure, the last date to register for JEE Main 2021 is January 15, 2021. Candidates will be allowed to pay their JEE Main 2021 application fee till January 17, 2021. Admit cards will be made available from the second week of February 2021.

Latest Updates

JEE Main 2021 will be held four times that is February, March, April and May 2021.

JEE Main 2021 to be conducted from Feb 23 to 26

About JEE Main 2021

Exam Name: Joint Entrance Exam Mains (JEE Mains)

Type: Undergraduate Level

Category: National Level

Organized by: National Testing Agency (NTA)

Official Website: https://jeemain.nta.nic.in

JEE Main 2021 Important Dates

Activity	Date
Starting Date of Application form	16th December, 2020
Last date for submission of application	16th January, 2021
Admit Card	9th February, 2021
JEE Main 2021 Exam (February Session)	23rd to 26th February 2021
JEE Main 2021 Exam (March Session)	15th to 18th March 2021
JEE Main 2021 Exam (April Session)	27th to 30th April2021
JEE Main 2021 Exam (May Session)	24th to 28th May 2021

JEE Main 2021 Eligibility

• Candidates should have passed Class 12 or any equivalent qualifying examination in 2019 or 2020.

• Candidates appearing in Class 12 or equivalent qualifying exam in 2021 can also apply for JEE Main 2021.

• Candidates who have passed Class 12th or any equivalent qualifying examination in 2018 or before as well as those who will appear in such examination in 2021 or later are not eligible to appear in JEE Main 2021.

JEE Main 2021 Application Form

• Visit the official website by https://jeemain.nta.nic.in/

• Click on ' Apply for JEE (Main) 2021' link highlighted in the blue marker.

• Click on the I proceed option after reading the information brochure.

• Register on the portal by filling the personal details and creating secure pin.

• Attach relevant documents in the JEE Main application form such as Class 10 marksheet and identity proof.

• Upload scanned photo and signature.

• Pay requisite fee online through credit card/debit card/net banking/UPI mode.

• Submit the application form and take a printout of it.

JEE Main 2021 Admit Card

After the successful registration of JEE Main 2021, National Testing Agency will release admit card in the second week of February 2021. NTA will release JEE Main admit card 2021 on their official website 15 days before the exam.

JEE Main 2021 Syllabus

NTA will conduct JEE Main 2021 for three papers - Paper 1 (Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics) and Paper 2 (Mathematics, Aptitude, Drawing) and Paper 3 (Mathematics, Aptitude Test and Planning Based Questions). You can view detailed JEE Main 2021 Syllabus by clicking.

JEE Main 2021 Answer Key

After the exam will be over, NTA will release answer keys of every sessions. Students who are not satisfied with the JEE Main answer key will be allowed to challenge the same within a given time period. A sum of fee fixed by the authority must be paid to the student.

JEE Main 2021 Results

NTA will declare JEE Main 2021 result in March for the first session. The result will be made available on the official website. Students can check their result by entering their application number and password.

JEE Main 2021 Cut off

After all the four sessions will be concluded, NTA will release the cutoff of JEE Main 2021 which is of two types: qualifying cutoff and admission cutoff. JEE Main qualifying cutoff will be the minimum marks required for admission in JEE participating institutes and also for participating in JEE Advanced. Admission cutoff can be used within which participating institutes offer admission.

Mineral and Power Resources Extra Questions Chapter 3 Class 8 Geography

Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources Extra Questions for Class 8 Geography will be helpful in understanding the key concepts of the chapter properly. Through the help of Class 8 Extra Questions, you will prepare for the examinations in a better manner.

Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. In which industry is silicon important? From which ore is it obtained?

Answer

Silicon is important in the computer industry which is obtained from quartz.

2. Differentiate between a rock and an ore.

Answer

A rock is an aggregate of one or more minerals. An ore is a rock from which minerals are mined.

3. Name two areas in Australia, which have large deposits of gold.

Answer

Two areas in Western Australia having large deposits of gold are Kalgoorlie and Coolgardie.

4. How can minerals be identified?

Answer

Minerals can be identified on the basis of their physical properties such as colour,\ density, hardness and chemical property such as solubility.

5. Define quarrying.

Answer

Quarrying is a process of extraction in which minerals lying near the surface are simply dug out.

6. Why is coal called “buried sunshine”?

Answer

Coal is called “buried sunshine” because it is found buried under the earth, and is as important a source of energy as sunshine.

7. Why do we need power resources?

Answer

We need power or energy resources for industry, agriculture transport, communication and defense.

8. Why are minerals considered non-renewable?

Answer

Minerals take thousands of years to form. The rate of formation is much smaller than rate of consumption. So we classify them as non-renewable.

9. Which was the first country to develop hydroelectricity ?

Answer

Norway was the first country to develop hydroelectricity.

10. Why are petroleum and its derivatives called “black gold”?

Answer

Petroleum and its derivatives are black in colour but as valuable as gold, so we refer to it as “black gold”.

11. Give one advantage of biogas over natural gas.

Answer

Biogas is a renewable source of energy whereas the amount of natural gas is limited.

12. Where are the ores of metallic minerals generally located?

Answer

Ores of metallic minerals are located in igneous and metamorphic rock formations that form large plateaus.

Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. What are the advantages and disadvantages of firewood?

Answer

Advantages of firewood:

• It is easily accessible.

• It provides energy to a large number of people.

Disadvantages of firewood:

• The collection of firewood is time consuming.

• It leaves polluting effects on the surroundings.

• It promotes greenhouse effect.

• It encourages deforestation.

2. Where are minerals found?

Answer

Minerals are located in different types of rocks. Some are found in igneous rocks, some in metamorphic

rocks while others occur in sedimentary rocks.

• Metallic minerals are generally located in igneous and metamophic rock formations that form large plateaus. Iron ore in North Sweden; copper and nickel deposits in Ontario, Canada; iron, chromites and platinum in South Africa are examples of minerals found in igneous and metamorphic rocks.

• Non-metallic minerals such as limestone are located in sedimentary rock formation of plains and young fold mountains. Limestone deposits of Caucasus region of France, manganese deposits of Georgia, etc. are some examples.

• Coal and petroleum are also found in sedimentary strata.

3. How is hydroelectricity produced?

Answer

Hydroelectricity is produced from the energy possessed by water falling from great heights. River water is stored in dams. When rain water or river water falls from heights, it flows over turbine blades placed at the bottom of the dam. The moving blades are connected to a generator which produces electricity from this energy. This electricity is called hydroelectricity. The water discharged after its production is used for irrigation.

4. Classify minerals on the basis of composition.

Answer

On the basis of composition, minerals are classified as:

(i) Metallic minerals: These minerals contain metal in raw form. For example, iron ore, bauxite, manganese ore. Metallic minerals may be ferrous or non-ferrous. Ferrous minerals contain iron. For example iron ore, manganese and chromites. A non-ferrous mineral does not contain iron but may contain some other metal such as gold, silver, copper or lead.

(ii) Non-metallic minerals: These minerals do not contain metals. For example, limestone, mica and gypsum. Coal and petroleum are also non-metallic minerals.

5. Name and describe briefly methods of extraction.

Answer

Mining, drilling and quarrying are methods of extraction. Mining is a process of extraction of taking out minerals from rocks under the earth’s surface.

• Open cast mining: In this, minerals lying at shallow depths are taken out by removing the surface layer.

• Shaft mining: In this, deep bores (called shafts) are made to reach mineral deposits lying at large depths. Drilling: In this, deep wells are bored to take out minerals.

• Quarrying: It is the process of extraction in which minerals lying very close to the surface are extracted just by digging them out.

6. Describe the mineral distribution in North America.

Answer

The mineral deposits in North America are found in three zones: the Canadian region in the north of the Great Lakes, the Appalachian region and the Rocky Mountains in the West. Iron ore, nickel, gold, uranium and copper are mined in the Canadian Shield Region, coal in the Appalachian region. Western Cordilleras have vast deposits of copper, lead, zinc, gold and silver.

7. Describe some common uses of minerals.

Answer

Minerals are important in many industries. Minerals used in gems are usually very hard. These are then set in varying styles of jewellery. Iron and copper are metals used in almost everything. Copper is present in everything from coins to pipes and electricity wires. Silicon, obtained from the mineral quartz, is the base of computer industry. Aluminium, obtained from bauxite ore, and its alloys are used in aeroplanes due to their light weight. Aluminium is also used in kitchen cookware.

8. What are the advantages and disadvantages of wind energy?

Answer

Advantages of wind energy:

• It is non-polluting.

• Low-cost production of electricity is possible once it is set up.

Disadvantages of wind energy:

• It creates noise pollution.

• Setting up windmills is a costly affair.

• It disturbs radio and T.V. reception.

• Wind energy is harmful to birds.

Chapter 3 Mineral and Power Resources Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Write the advantages and disadvantages of non-conventional sources of energy.

Answer

Advantages of non-conventional sources of energy:

• Non-conventional sources of energy are usually inexhaustible. They do not pollute the environment.

• Nuclear power is emitted in large amounts.

• Most non-conventional sources of energy cost less.

• These forms of energy are safe to use and clean.

Disadvantages of non-conventional sources of energy:

• Wind mills are costly to set up. So using them to harness wind energy is costly, even though the electricity generated from it is cheap.

• Setting up windmills disturbs radio and TV broadcast.

• Harnessing tidal energy destroys natural habitats of wildlife.

• Moreover, tidal energy is difficult to harness.

• Obtaining nuclear energy from radioactive material generates radioactive waste. It is expensive too.

• Biogas, although useful and renewable, contributes to greenhouse effect.

2. Name and describe some non-conventional sources of energy.

Answer

Non-conventional power sources are those power sources that have come into use recently due to the depleting conventional resources and growing awareness. Solar energy, wind energy, geothermal energy, nuclear power and tidal energy are examples of non- conventional power sources.

• Solar energy is the heat and light energy captured from the sun. Solar cells help to convert this energy to electricity. Solar energy is used in solar heaters, solar cookers, solar dryers, etc.

• Wind energy is the energy possessed by moving air (wind). Windmills are used to convert wind energy to electricity. Wind farms having clusters of windmills located in coastal regions and mountain passes.

• Nuclear power is energy possessed by the nuclei of atoms of naturally occurring radioactive elements like uranium-, thorium, etc.

• Geothermal energy is the heat energy obtained from the inside of the earth. The temperature inside the earth increases as we go deeper. This heat is used to produce electricity. It is accessed in the form of hot springs.

• Tidal energy is the energy generated from tides. It is harnessed by building dams at narrow openings of the sea.

• Biogas is a gaseous fuel obtained from the decomposition of organic waste like dead plant and animal material or animal dung and kitchen waste. It is an excellent fuel for cooking and lighting, and is environment-friendly.

3. Name and describe some conventional sources of energy.

Answer

Conventional sources of energy are:

• Firewood: It is widely used for cooking and heating in villages.

• Coal: It is used as a domestic fuel, in industries and to generate electricity. Electricity from coal is called thermal power. The coal producing areas of India are Raniganj, Jharia, Dhanbad and Bokaro in Jharkhand.

• Petroleum: It is found between the layers of rocks and is drilled from oil- fields located in off-shore and coastal areas. This is then sent to refineries which process the crude oil and produce diesel, petrol, kerosene wax, plastics and lubricants. The leading petroleum producers in India are Digboi in Assam, Bombay High in Mumbai and the deltas of Krishna and Godavari rivers.

• Natural Gas: It is found with petroleum deposits and is released when crude oil is brought to the surface. It can be used as a domestic and industrial fuel. In India, Jaisalmer, Krishna- Godavari delta, Tripura and some areas such as offshore in Mumbai have natural gas resources.

• Hydel Power: Hydro electricity is generated by fast flowing water. It is a renewable resource. One-fourth of the world’s electricity is produced by hydel power. Some important hydel power stations in India are Bhakra Nangal, Gandhi Sagar, Nagarjunasagar and Damodar valley projects.

Agriculture Extra Questions Chapter 4 Class 8 Geography

Chapter 4 Agriculture Extra Questions for Class 8 Geography Extra Questions will be useful during the preparation of exams and passing with flying colours. Class 8 Extra Questions provided will help you in understanding important points inside the chapter properly.

Chapter 4 Agriculture Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. Where is mixed farming practised?

Answer

Mixed farming is practised in Europe, eastern USA, Argentina, Southeast Australia, New Zealand and South Africa.

2. What are tertiary activities?

Answer

Tertiary activities are those which provide support to primary and secondary activities.

3. What is arable land?

Answer

The land on which crops are grown is called arable land.

4. What is the basic function of the three basic types of economic activities?

Answer

The three types of economic activities are involved in the transformation from a plant to a finished product.

5. What is the basic function of the three basic types of economic activities?

Answer

The three types of economic activities are involved in the transformation from a plant to a finished product.

6. Where is nomadic herding practised?

Answer

Nomadic herding is practised in semi- arid and arid regions of Sahara, Central Asia and some parts of India.

7. What is the main feature of plantation agriculture?

Answer

In plantation agriculture only a single crop is grown over a large area.

8. Why is mixed farming called so?

Answer

In mixed farming the land is used for growing crops as well as rearing livestock.

9. Which two countries lead in the production of jute?

Answer

India and Bangladesh are the leading producers of jute.

10. What is organic farming?

Answer

Organic farming is a type of farming in which organic manure and natural pesticides are used instead of chemicals. No genetic modification is done to increase the yield of the crop.

11. How is subsistence farming classified?

Answer

Subsistence farming is classified into intensive and primitive subsistence agriculture.

12. What weather conditions are required in the growing and harvesting seasons of wheat?

Answer

In the growing season wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall and in the harvesting season it needs bright sunshine.

Chapter 4 Agriculture Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. Describe the climate conditions required for the proper cultivation of rice. Mention the main regions of its production.

Answer

Rice is a major food crop in tropical and sub-tropical parts of the world. Its cultivation needs high temperature, high humidity and rainfall. Its growth is best in alluvial clayey soils, since they have water retention capacity. China and India are the leading producers in the world. In favourable climatic conditions, even two to three crops are grown in a year.

2. Describe various types of economic activities. Give examples.

Answer

The three types of economic activities are primary, secondary and tertiary.

• Primary Activities: Those activities which involve direct extraction and production of natural resources are called primary activities. Examples: agriculture, fishing, mining.

• Secondary Activities: Those activities which are concerned with the processing of natural resources are called secondary activities. Examples: manufacturing of finished products.

• Tertiary Activities: Those activities which fall neither in the primary category nor the secondary category are called tertiary activities. They form a support to primary and secondary activities. Examples: selling goods, advertising and banking.

3. Distinguish between subsistence farming and commercial farming.

Answer

Subsistence farming is practised to meet the needs of the farm’s family. In this farming low levels of technology and household labour are used to produce small output. This is an old- fashioned method of farming.

In commercial farming crops are grown and animals are reared for sale in market. This farming is done on large areas and the amount of capital used is also very large. Most of the work is done by machines. This is a modern method of farming.

4. What do you understand by agricultural development?

Answer

Agricultural development refers to efforts made to increase production in farms so as to meet the ever growing demand of the population. The activities that come under this development are increasing the cropped area, growing more crops, improving irrigation, using fertilisers, sowing HYV (high-yielding variety) of seeds and by promoting mechanisation. Mechanisation ensures that little labour is done by the farmers; instead machines are used to provide efficiency.

5. Write in brief about intensive subsistence farming.

Answer

Intensive subsistence farming is a type of farming in which the farmer cultivates a small plot of land using simple tools and more labour. Climate with large number of days with sunshine and fertile soils permit growing of more than one crop annually on the same small plot. Rice is the main crop grown by farmers under this method. Other crops are wheat, maize, pulses and oilseeds. Intensive-farming is prevalent in the thickly populated areas of the monsoon regions of south, southeast and east Asia.

Chapter 4 Agriculture Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Describe commercial farming and its types in detail.

Answer

Commercial farming is the practice in which crops are grown exclusively for commercial purpose, i.e. for sale in the market. A large area is cultivated and huge capital is involved unlike subsistence farming. Machines are used to a large extent.

Commercial grain farming is a class of commercial farming. Crops like wheat and maize are grown for commercial purpose. The temperate grasslands of North America, Europe and Asia are some common areas where it is seen.

Mixed farming is another type of commercial farming. The land is used for growing food and fodder crops and rearing livestock. Some areas where it is followed are Europe, eastern USA, Argentina, south-east Australia, New Zealand and South Africa. Plantations are a type of commercial farming where only a single crop (like tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana or cotton) is grown. Large amount of labour and capital are required. The produce is processed in the farm itself or nearby factories.

2. What are the important beverage crops. What are the climatic conditions required for their growth?

Answer

The important beverage crops are tea and coffee.

• Tea: It is grown on plantations. This requires cool climate and well-distributed high rainfall throughout the year for the growth of its tender leaves. It needs well-drained loamy soils and gentle slopes. It also needs labour in large number to pick up the leaves.

• Coffee: It is also grown on plantations. It requires warm and wet climate and well-drained loamy soil. Hill slopes are more suitable for growth of this crop.

JEE Main 2021 Eligibility Criteria| Educational Qualification and Age limit

Here you will find JEE Main 2021 Eligibility Criteria which includes educational qualification and age limitations Every year, NTA conducts JEE Main Exam two times every year. But this time JEE Main 2021 will be held four time this year due to unprecedented situation created by COVID pandemic that is in February, March, April and May 2021. The exam will be conducted through both modes i.e., computer based and pen & paper based mode.

JEE Main 2021 Eligibility Criteria

According to the National Testing Agency (NTA) information brochure, the last date to register for JEE Main 2021 is January 15, 2021. With the help of scores obtained in JEE Main 2021, students can apply for BE/BTech, BE, B.Plan and B.Arch courses in various institutes like IITs, NITs, IIITs and state colleges.

• Exam: Candidates must qualify their 10+2 or equivalent examination from a recognized board.

• Subjects: Candidates must have to take minimum 5 subjects in 12th or equivalent examination. For BE/B.Tech students they must have taken Physics and Mathematics as compulsory subjects along with one of the Chemistry or Biology or Biotechnology or Technical Vocational subject. For B.Arch, Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry are essential and for B.Plan, Mathematics is necessary.

• Marks Obtained: There are no minimum marks required. Students with passing marks can also apply.

However, Students should get at least 75% marks in class 12 examination for admission in NITs, IIITs and other Centrally Funded Technical Institutes (CFTIs) or they should rank in the top 20 percentile of their qualifying exams to get admission in other state government institutions.

• Nationality: Candidates must be a Citizen of India. Students who are Non-Residential Indian (NRI) or Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) or Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) can also apply by providing the category certificates at all stages of JEE Main.

• Number of Attempts: Students can make 3 attempts for JEE Main exam.

JEE Main 2021 Age Limit

• For General and OBC student whose birth date falls on or after 1st October 1994 will be eligible to appear for JEE Main 2021.

• For Scheduled Caste (SC) and Scheduled Tribe (ST), as well as Persons with Disabilities (PwD) the upper age limit relaxation of 5 years will be applied i.e. people under the categories of who are born on or after 1st October 1989, will be eligible.

List of Qualifying Examinations for JEE Mains 2021 Eligibility Criteria

• Class 12 final exam conducted by Central or State Boards, such as Central Board of Secondary Education, Council for the Indian School Certificate Examinations etc.

• Intermediate or two-year Pre-University exam conducted by a recognized Board/ University.

• Final exam of the two-year course of the Joint Services Wing of the National Defence Academy.

• Senior Secondary School Examination conducted by the National Institute of Open Schooling having a minimum of five subjects.

• Any Public School/ Board/ University examination in India or in any foreign country recognized as equivalent to the 10+2 system by the Association of Indian Universities (AIU).

• H.S.C - Vocational examination.

• A Diploma recognized by AICTE or a State board of technical education of a minimum of 3 year duration

• General Certificate Education (GCE) examination (London/Cambridge/Sri Lanka) at the Advanced (A) level.

• High School Certificate Examination of the Cambridge University or International Baccalaureate Diploma of the International Baccalaureate Office, Geneva.

Year of Appearance in Qualifying Examination (Class 12):

• Students who have passed Class 12 / equivalent examination in 2019, 2020 or 2021; or those who are appearing in Class 12 / equivalent examination in 2021, are eligible to appear in JEE (Main) 2021.

• Students who passed Class 12/equivalent examination in 2018 or before as well as those who will appear in such examination in 2022 or later are not eligible to appear in JEE (Main) 2021.

JEE Main 2021 Eligibility Criteria for Admissions to NITs, IIITs and CFTIs

• NITs/ IIITs/ GFTIs Admission: Students should have passed class 12 with a minimum of 75% marks or they must be in the top 20 percentile in their class 12 examination (65% for SC/ST candidates).

• JEE Main 2021 B.Arch/B.Plan Admission: Students should have passed 10+2 or equivalent exam from a recognized board with a minimum 50% aggregate marks.

State of Eligibility

• The state of eligibility is the code of the state from where a candidate has completed class 12. It does not depend upon the native place or the place of residence of the candidate.

• If a student has passed class 12 or equivalent exam from a state but he/she has appeared for the improvement exam from a different state, then the state code where the student originally passed the qualifying exam will be considered for eligibility.

• Students passed/appearing class 12th from NIOS should select the State of Eligibility according to the State in which the study centre is located.

• For Indian nationals passing the Class XII (or equivalent) examination from Nepal/Bhutan, the State code of eligibility will be determined based on a permanent address in India as given in the passport of the candidate.

• The State code of eligibility of OCI/PIO passing Class 12th standard exam in India will be at par with Indian nationals, however, OCI/PIO passing the 12th standard exam from an institution abroad will be eligible for other state quota seats or All India quota seats (but not for Home State quota seats) in all NITs, IIEST and Other-CFTIs.

Reservations

In the case of Institutes run by the Central Government, the reservation would be applicable as mentioned below:

• 15% of the seats Scheduled Castes (SC) candidates

• 7.5% seats for Scheduled Tribes (ST) candidates

• 27% seats for Other Backward Classes (OBC) Non-Creamy Layer (NCL) candidates as per the Central List

• 10% of the seats for General Economically Weaker Sections (General - EWS) candidates

• Persons with Disability (PwD) with 40% or more disability

• Each category will have 5% reservations for the candidates with 40% or more disability.

• In the case of the Institutes run/aided/recognized by State Governments, the reservation policy of the respective State Governments shall be applicable.

JEE Main 2021 Application Process| How to Apply

NTA is going to conduct JEE Main 2021 and application process has started for February session from December 16 2020 which s going to be end on January 16, 2021. This year JEE Main 2021 will be held four time that is in February, March, April and May 2021. A student has option to apply only for one Session, he/ he has to pay Examination Fee only for that Session during the current application period and will have opportunity to apply again for the remaining March/April/May Sessions.

Examination for the May session will be the last Examination for coming academic year. Fees can also be carried forward to another Session of JEE Main 2021. Incase a candidate does not want to appear in the Session for which fee has already been paid, it will be refunded by NTA. NTA will open the JEE Main 2021 registration window briefly for each 3 sessions in March, April and May 2021. Students who apply for more than one Session of examination (February/March/April/May), may change their

Choice of Cities in the correction window, which will be opened in due course.

Apply for JEE Main 2021 (Direct Link)

How to Apply for JEE Main 2021

JEE Main 2021 application form is available through online mode. There are total four steps in completing the registration and filling JEE Main Application form. Before applying, you can check JEE Main 2021 Eligibility Criteria.

Step 1 - Registration

• Go to official website- jeemain.nta.nic.in.

• Click on 'Apply for JEE(Main) 2021'.

• Click on 'New Registration' given on the left hand side.

• You need to check on 'I have downloaded Information Bulletin, read and understood all the instructions' and proceed further.

• After that you have to enter personal details, address and create password and security pin so you can login next time and download admit card and results.

• After submitting you need to verify all details and click on 'Final Submit' button.

Step 2 - Application Form

• Now you need to fill JEE Main 2021 application form.

• You need to provide Nationality, State Code of Eligibility, Category and select paper, session and question paper medium.

• After that you need to enter academic details such as class 10 and 12 marksheet and parent's income details.

• After filling all details, you need to click on submit button.

Note: While applying, candidates have to select any four cities of their choice. The efforts will be made to allot the city of examination to the candidates in order of choice opted by them in their online Application Form. However, due to administrative/logistic reasons, a different city can be allotted.

Step 3 - Image Upload

• After completing details, you need to upload scanned images of passport size coloured photograph and signature.

• Photograph and signature should be in jpeg format which should be about 10 to 100 kb and dimension of 3.5cm x 4.5cm.

Step 4 - Fee Payment

• After successfully uploading images, now you need to pay application fees. The last date of paying fee is 17th January 2021.

Given below is fee payment amount which a student need to pay.

Application Fee (Exam Centres in India)
Paper(s)	General and OBC	SC/ST/PwD/Transgender
B.E./B.Tech or B.Arch or B.Planning	Boys - ₹ 650 Girls - ₹ 325	Boys - ₹ 325 Girls - ₹ 325
Both B.E./B.Tech & B. Arch or B.E./B.Tech & B. Planning or B.E./B.Tech, B. Arch & B.Planning or B.Arch & B.Planning	Boys - ₹ 1300 Girls - ₹ 650	Boys - ₹ 650 Girls - ₹ 650
Application Fee (Exam Centres in Foreign Countries)
Paper(s)	General and OBC	SC/ST/PwD/Transgender
B.E./B.Tech or B.Arch or B.Planning	Boys - ₹ 3000 Girls - ₹ 1500	Boys - ₹ 1500 Girls - ₹ 1500
Both B.E./B.Tech & B. Arch or B.E./B.Tech & B. Planning or B.E./B.Tech, B. Arch & B.Planning or B.Arch & B.Planning	Boys - ₹ 6000 Girls - ₹ 3000	Boys - ₹ 3000 Girls - ₹ 3000

• After paying application fee, the status will be 'OK' which means payment has been successfully completed.

• You need to take print out of confirmation page for future reference.

• In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee, then the candidate may have to

approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway.

JEE Main 2021 Application Form Correction

Student can make JEE Main application form correction which will be available form January 19 to 21, 2021. In order to do this, they have to login with their application number and password and rectify their mistakes in the JEE Main 2021 application form and submit them.

JEE Main 2021 Exam Pattern and Syllabus

NTA has started the application process for JEE Main 2021 exam. Students who are interested can apply from December 16 2020 and the last date is January 16, 2021. This year JEE Main 2021 will be held four time that is in February, March, April and May 2021. Due to COVID situation, some special changes has been made in the exam pattern of the examinations however JEE Main 2021 syllabus has been left untouched.

Check JEE Main 2021 Eligibility Criteria

The number of questions that used to come in JEE Main earlier will remain unchanged but all students appearing for JEE Main 2021 will need to attempt 75 questions out of 90 or 25 out of questions 30 in each section of Chemistry, Physics and Mathematics. Earlier, students have no choice of attempting questions. The examination will be of 3 hours.

Check JEE Main 2021 Application Process

JEE Main 2021 Exam Pattern for B.E/ B.Tech students

Subject	Number of Questions	Marks Allotted
Mathematics	20 MCQs and 10 Numerical Questions	100
Physics	20 MCQs and 10 Numerical Questions	100
Chemistry	20 MCQs and 10 Numerical Questions	100
Total	90 Questions (75 Questions need to be Answered)	300

• Section A contains 20 MCQs for each subject while Section B contains 10 numerical questions for each subject out which 5 must be attempted by students.

• Each correct MCQ answer will carry four mark while one negative mark will be there for each incorrect MCQ answer. There will be no deductions for unanswered or marked for review questions.

• In Numerical question, correct answer will give you four marks while no negative marking for incorrect answer.

Tie Breaker Policy

• For candidates obtaining equal NTA score, the JEE Main 2021 tie breaker policy will decide JEE Ranks. The subject wise priority list is given below:

→ First Mathematics

→ Second Physics

→ Third Chemistry

→ If two or more students score same marks in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry sections, then least number of negative answers will be taken into consideration.

JEE Main 2021 Exam Pattern for B.Arch students

Subject	Number of Questions	Marks Allotted
Mathematics Part I	20 MCQs and 10 Numerical Questions	100
Aptitude Test Part II	50	200
Drawing Test Part III	02	100
Total	82 Questions	400

• Part I contains 20 MCQs for each subject and contains 10 numerical questions for each subject out which 5 must be attempted by students. Aptitude Test (Part-II) will be held in Computer Based Test Mode only and Drawing Test (Part-III) in pen & paper (offline) mode, to be attempted on drawing sheet of A4 size.

• Each correct MCQ answer will carry four mark while one negative mark will be there for each incorrect MCQ answer. There will be no deductions for unanswered or marked for review questions.

• In Numerical question, correct answer will give you four marks while no negative marking for incorrect answer.

Tie Breaker Policy

• For candidates obtaining equal NTA score, the JEE Main 2021 tie breaker policy will decide JEE Ranks. The subject wise priority list is given below:

→ First Mathematics

→ Second Aptitude

→ Third Drawing

→ If two or more students score same marks in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry sections, then least number of negative answers will be taken into consideration.

JEE Main 2021 Exam Pattern for B.Plan students

Subject	Number of Questions	Marks Allotted
Mathematics Part I	20 MCQs and 10 Numerical Questions	100
Aptitude Test Part II	50	200
Planning Based Objective Type MCQs	25	100
Total	105 Questions	400

• Part I contains 20 MCQs for each subject and contains 10 numerical questions for each subject out which 5 must be attempted by students. Aptitude Test (Part-II) and Planning Based Objective Type (Part III) will be held in Computer Based Test Mode only.

• Each correct MCQ answer will carry four mark while one negative mark will be there for each incorrect MCQ answer. There will be no deductions for unanswered or marked for review questions.

• In Numerical question, correct answer will give you four marks while no negative marking for incorrect answer.

• For candidates obtaining equal NTA score, the JEE Main 2021 tie breaker policy will decide JEE Ranks. The subject wise priority list is given below:

→ First Mathematics

→ Second Aptitude

→ Third Planning Based MCQs

→ If two or more students score same marks in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry sections, then least number of negative answers will be taken into consideration.

JEE Main 2021 Syllabus for B.E/ B.Tech students

Mathematics Syllabus

Sets, Relations, and Functions	Mathematical Induction	Integral Calculus	Vectoral Algebra
Complex Numbers and Quadratic Equations	Binomial Theorem and Its Simple Applications	Differential Equations	Statistics and Probability
Matrices and Determinants	Sequences and Series	Coordinate Geometry	Trigonometry
Permutations and Combinations	Limit Continuity, and Differentiability	Three Dimensional Geometry	Mathematical Reasoning

Physics Syllabus

Physics and Measurements	Thermodynamics	Electromagnetic Waves
Kinematics	Kinetic Theory of Gases	Optics
Laws of Motion	Oscillations and Waves	Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation
Work, Energy, and Power	Electrostatics	Atoms and Nuclei
Rotational Motion	Current Electricity	Electronic Devices
Gravitation	Magnetic Effects of Current and Magnetism	Communication Systems
Properties of Solids and Liquids	Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Currents	-

Chemistry Syllabus

Section A: Physical Chemistry
Some Basic Concepts in Chemistry	Chemical Thermodynamics	Chemical Kinetics
States of Matter	Solutions	Surface Chemistry
Atomic Structure	Equilibrium	-
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure	Redox Reactions and Electrochemistry	-
Section C: Organic Chemistry
Section B: Inorganic Chemistry
Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties	Block Elements (Alkali and Alkaline Earth Metals)	Coordination Compounds
General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Metals	P-Block Elements	Environmental Chemistry
Hydrogen	d-and-f Block Elements	-
Section C: Organic Chemistry
Purification and Characterization of Organic Compounds	Organic Compounds Containing Oxygen	Chemistry In Everyday Life
Some Basic Principles of Organic Chemistry	Organic Compounds Containing Nitrogen	Principles Related to Practical Chemistry
Hydrocarbons	Polymers	-
Organic Compounds Containing Halogens	Biomolecules	-

JEE Main 2021 Syllabus for B.Arch/ B.Plan students

Part I	Awareness of persons, places, Buildings, Materials. Objects, Texture related to Architecture and build—environment. Visualising three-dimensional objects from two-dimensional drawings. Visualizing. different sides of three-dimensional objects. Analytical Reasoning Mental Ability (Visual, Numerical and Verbal).
Part II	Three dimensional - perception: Understanding and appreciation of scale and proportion of objects, building forms, and elements, color texture, harmony and contrast. Design and drawing of geometrical or abstract shapes and patterns in pencil. Transformation of forms both 2 D and 3 D union, subtraction, rotation, development of surfaces and volumes, Generation of Plan, elevations and 3 D views of objects. Creating two dimensional and three-dimensional compositions using given shapes and forms. Sketching of scenes and activities from memory of urbanscape (public space, market, festivals, street scenes, monuments, recreational spaces, ect.), landscape (river fronts, jungles, trees, plants, etc.) and rural life.

Part I

Awareness of persons, places, Buildings, Materials. Objects, Texture related to Architecture and build—environment. Visualising three-dimensional objects from two-dimensional drawings. Visualizing. different sides of three-dimensional objects. Analytical Reasoning Mental Ability (Visual, Numerical and Verbal).

Part II

Three dimensional - perception: Understanding and appreciation of scale and proportion of objects, building forms, and elements, color texture, harmony and contrast. Design and drawing of geometrical or abstract shapes and patterns in pencil. Transformation of forms both 2 D and 3 D union, subtraction, rotation, development of surfaces and volumes, Generation of Plan, elevations and 3 D views of objects. Creating two dimensional and three-dimensional compositions using given shapes and forms.

Sketching of scenes and activities from memory of urbanscape (public space, market, festivals, street scenes, monuments, recreational spaces, ect.), landscape (river fronts, jungles, trees, plants, etc.) and rural life.

Drawing Test Syllabus for B. Arch Paper

• Drawing and Designing of geometrical or abstract shapes & patterns in pencil

• Transformation of forms both 2D and 3D union

• Elevation and 3D views of objects rotation

• Development of Surfaces and Volumes

• Generation of Plan

• Creating 2D & 3D compositions using given shapes and forms

• Sketching of activities from memory of urban scenes

Industries Extra Questions Chapter 5 Class 8 Geography

Chapter 5 Industries Extra Questions for Class 8 Geography will be very useful in attaining good marks in the examinations and encourage students to learn new topics. Class 8 Extra Questions can be helpful in grasping the important concepts of the chapter properly.

Chapter 5 Industries Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. Expand AMUL. Where are its headquarters?

Answer

Anand Milk Union Limited. Its headquarters are in Anand, Gujarat.

2. Name an industrial region in northern India.

Answer

The Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region is an industrial region in northern India.

3. What is smelting?

Answer

Smelting is the process in which metals one extracted from their ores by heating beyond the melting point.

4. Define industry.

Answer

Industry refers to an economic activity that is concerned with production of goods, extraction of minerals or provision of services.

5. What does the information technology deal in?

Answer

The information technology deals in the storage, processing and distribution of information.

6. Name three common methods of classifying industries.

Answer

Industries are classified according to raw material used, size and ownership.

7. What are the inputs of an industrial system?

Answer

The inputs of an industrial system are the raw materials, labour and costs of land, transport, power and other infrastructure.

8. Why is Bangalore also known as 'Silicon Plateau'?

Answer

Bangalore is located on the Deccan Plateau. Therefore, it is known as ‘Silicon Plateau’.

9. What is the link between the mines and the industry in Pittsburgh?

Answer

The Great Lakes of North America lie between the mines and industrial plant in Pittsburgh.

10. What industries have started replacing the textile industry in Osaka?

Answer

Iron and steel, machinery, shipbuilding, automobiles, electrical equipment and cement industry have begun to replace the textile industry in Osaka.

11. What products do industrial plants in Jamshedpur produce?

Answer

Industrial plants produce chemicals, locomotive parts, agricultural equipment, machinery, tinplate etc.

12. How do industrial regions emerge?

Answer

Industrial regions emerge when a number of industries locate close to each other and share the benefits of their closeness.

Chapter 5 Industries Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. Why was the Tata Iron and Steel Company (TISCO) set up at Sakchi, in Jamshedpur. Give reasons.

Answer

There were several reasons behind this:

• Sakchi was only 32 km away from Kalimati station on the Bengal–Nagpur railway line.

• It was close to the iron ore, coal and manganese deposits as well as to Kolkata, which provided a large market.

• TISCO gets coal from Jharia coalfields, and iron ore, limestone, dolomite and manganese from

Orissa and Chhattisgarh. These places are close to Sakchi.

• The Kharki and Subarnarekha rivers are close to Sakchi, that ensured sufficient water supply.

2. Describe briefly the classification of industries on basis of ownership.

Answer

On the basis of ownership, industries are classified into private sector, state owned (public sector), joint sector and cooperative sector.

• Private sector industries are owned by individuals or a group of individuals.

• Public sector industries are owned by the government.

• Joint sector industries are owned and operated by the state and individuals. Maruti Udyog is an example of such an industry.

• Cooperative sector industries are owned and operated by the producers or-suppliers of raw materials, workers or both. AMUL is one such industry.

3. Mention the main factors that influence the location of an industry.

Answer

The factors affecting the location of industries are the availability of raw material, land, water, labour, power, capital, transport and market. Industries are situated where some or all of these factors are easily available. Sometimes, the government provides incentives like subsidised power, lower transport cost

and other infrastructure so that industries may be located in the backward areas.

4. Describe briefly the classification of industries on basis of raw material used.

Answer

On the basis of raw material used, industries are classified into agro, mineral, marine and forest-based.

• The raw material of agro-based industries consists of plant and animal based products. Some examples are food processing, cotton textile industry and leather industry.

• The raw material used in mineral- based industries consists of mineral ores. An example: iron and steel industry.

• Marine-based industries use products obtained from the sea and oceans as raw materials. Sea food industry is one such industry.

• A forest-based industry uses forest produce as raw material. Examples are paper industry and furniture.

5. What does an industrial system consists of?

Answer

An industrial system consists of inputs, processes and outputs. The inputs are the raw materials, labour and costs of land, transport, power and other infrastructure. The processes include a wide range of activities that convert raw material into finished products the outputs are the end product and the income earned from it.

6. Mention the locational advantages of the Silicon Plateau, Bangalore.

Answer

• Bangalore has the largest number of educational institutions and IT colleges in India.

• The city was considered dust-free with low rents and low cost of living.

• The state government of Karnataka was the first to announce an IT Policy in 1992.

• The city has the largest and widest availability of skilled managers with work experience.

7. Give examples of industrial regions in India and the world.

Answer

The major industrial areas of the world are:

• Eastern North America, western and central Europe, eastern Europe and eastern Asia.

• In India, major industrial regions are Mumbai-Pune cluster, Bangalore-Tamil Nadu region, Hugli region, Ahmedabad-Baroda region, Chhotanagpur industrial belt, Vishakhapatnam-Guntur Belt, Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut region and the Kollam-Thiruvananthapuram industrial cluster.

8. Write the properties and significance of steel.

Answer

Steel has these properties: it is tough, it can easily be shaped (malleability), cut or made into wire (ductility). Adding certain other elements makes it harder, tougher, and rust-retention capability.

Steel is the backbone of modern industry. We use a lot of steel objects in daily life. Ships, trains and most other vehicles, tiny needles and safety pins, machinery and equipment, buildings, etc utilise steel as a main or sole constituent.

Chapter 5 Industries Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Why is Osaka known as the 'Manchester of Japan'?

Answer

Osaka is known as the ‘Manchester of Japan’ because it is an important textile centre of the country. The textile industry developed in Osaka due to several geographical factors. The extensive plain around Osaka ensured that land was easily available for the growth of cotton mills. Warm humid climate

is well suited to spinning and weaving. The river Yodo provides sufficient water for the mills. Labour is easily available. Location of port facilitates import of raw cotton and for exporting textiles. The textile industry at Osaka depends entirely upon imported raw materials which it gets from Egypt, India,

China and USA. The finished product is mostly exported and had a good market due to good quality and low price.

2. Describe the cotton textile industry with special reference to its history and spread in India.

Answer

Cotton is a natural fibre crop. The cotton textile industry is the industry which involves in making clothes out of the fibre. It is one of the oldest industries of the world. India has a glorious history of producing excellent quality cotton textiles. The Muslins of Dhaka, Chintzes of Masulipatnam, Calicos of Calicut and gold-wrought cotton of Burhanpur, Vadodara and Surat had world-famous quality and design. The traditional Indian cotton textile industry, however, could not compete with the Western textile mills, due to the high cost of the hand woven textile. The process involved, moreover, was time-consuming.

The first successful mechanised textile mill in India was established in Mumbai in 1854. The factors that led to the success were the warm and moist climate, the presence of a nearby port for importing machinery, the availability of raw material and skilled labour. Humidity was a main reason why the industry was initially limited to Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Today the industry has spread to various other parts of the country, due to the artificial production of humidity. The important cotton textile centres are in Coimbatore, Kanpur, Chennai, Ahmedabad, Mumbai, Kolkata, Ludhiana, Puducherry and Panipat.

CBSE Board| Latest News and Announcements

The Central Board of Secondary Education abbreviated as CBSE is national level board which is responsible for conducting 10 and 12 Board Exams and affiliating numerous schools all over India who are providing K12 education. This is most popular education board which is controlled and managed by Union Government of India.

CBSE Board follow NCERT curriculum thus all public and private schools affiliated to it follow NCERT textbooks for Class 1 to 12. As per numbers, total 24472 schools has been affiliated by the CBSE Board in India and other foreign countries. All Kendriya Vidyalayas and all Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas schools follow NCERT curriculum.

CBSE Board is also responsible for conducting CTET exam held twice a year. This exam is held for providing certificates to candidates who want to pursue career as teacher in various government schools.

CBSE Latest News

CBSE Class 10 and 12 Exams likely to be held in Feb-March 2021

Change in question paper pattern for Class 12

CBSE Class 12

Class 12 Board Exam is very important for every students as it can decide career of an individual. After passing Class 10, a student has to opt between three streams, science, commerce and humanities. One can pursue their career in their decided field after passing exams of Class 12. You can find variety of study materials on Studyrankers for improving your knowledge.

CBSE Class 11

Class 11 is one of the important grade as one can start preparing for competitive and entrance exams. As there is no board exam conducted by the board in this class, a student must utilize this precious time in upgrading their skillset and activities.

CBSE Class 10

Class 10 Board Exam will check your knowledge of the various topics which is going to help you in upcoming competitive exams. As this is the first time when a student appear for board exams, there must be some kind of pressure on them but one should prepare with comfortability and try not to panic. Studyrankers has prepared large resources of study materials for Class 10 so students can

CBSE Class 9

Class 9 is an important class where you can build fundamentals and engage yourself in study as well as various extra curricular activities. One should try to enlighten them with variety of knowledge and work on their weak areas.

CBSE Class 8

You should develop your skills and sharpen your basic knowledge in Class 8. A student must try to learn all the topics given in the textbook and practise more and more questions which will improve the knowledge among students.

CBSE Exam Pattern

CBSE has decided to drop assessment exams from the 2017-18 session and introduced Term based concept. The annual year is divided into two terms, Term 1 (1st Half of the session) and Term 2 (2ndt Half of the session). Term 1 and 2 will consist of Periodic Assessment (20 marks) and Half Yearly/Yearly Exam (80 marks). There will be 80 Marks Theory Exam and 20 Marks Internal assessment in both the term.

Periodic Test (10 marks) + Notebook Submission (5 marks) + Subject Enrichment activities (5 marks) + Board Exam (80 marks) = 100 marks.

• Periodic Test will be conducted by the Schools. Total three test will be taken and the average of the best two tests to be taken for final marks submission. The syllabus of periodic tests will be prepared by the schools.

CBSE Grading System

There has been two grading pattern introduced by the CBSE. One is for primary classes (5 point scale) and another one is for secondary and senior secondary classes.

CBSE Primary classes Grading System

Grade	Remark	Percentage
A*	Outstanding	90% to 100%
A	Excellent	75% to 89 %
B	Very Good	56% to 74 %
C	Good	35% to 55 %
D	Scope for improvement	Below 35 %

CBSE Secondary and Senior Secondary classes Grading System

Grade	Marks	Grade Points
A1	91-100	10
A2	81-90	9
B1	71-80	8
B2	61-70	7
C1	51-60	6
C2	41-50	5
D	33-40	4
E1	21-32	0
E2	20 and below	0

Human Resources Extra Questions Chapter 6 Class 8 Geography

Chapter 6 Human Resources Class 8 Geography Extra Questions is available on this page that can be useful inculcating correct learning habits among students. Extra Questions for Class 8 will help you in improving knowledge and understanding key concepts of the chapter in a better manner.

Chapter 6 Human Resources Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. What is the average density of population in the whole world?

Answer

The average density of population in the whole world is 51 persons per square km.

2. In what respects do different human beings differ?

Answer

Human beings differ from each other in age, sex, education, ethnicity, culture, physical and mental strength, etc.

3. How does climate affect the population distribution of an area?

Answer

People prefer to live in regions with a moderate climate, and not places of extreme cold and hot climate. So moderate climate regions are densely populated.

4. What is called the natural growth rate?

Answer

The difference between the birth rate and death rate of a county is a called the natural growth rate.

5. What is life expectancy?

Answer

Life expectancy is the number of years an average person can expect to live, based on data.

6. What is known as the pattern population distribution?

Answer

The way in which people are spread across the earth surface is known as the pattern of population distribution.

7. What is an age-sex pyramid?

Answer

An age-sex pyramid is a graph showing the number of males and females under certain defined age groups.

8. What is the general trend of migrations from one country to another? Why is it so?

Answer

Generally, people migrate from less developed countries to more developed ones. This is done for better employment opportunities and other facilities.

Chapter 6 Human Resources Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. Describe how the population of the world has grown in history. What has caused the population explosion?

Answer

The world population grew steadily initially. It reached a billion in the year 1820. But the next two billion were added in just a hundred and fifty years. By 1970 the population was 3 billion. In the next 29 years, i.e. by the year 1999, the population had doubled to 6 billion. The population explosion has been mainly caused by the growth in medical facilities, which has decreased the death rate by a large extent.

2. How do topography and climate of a place affect the distribution of population?

Answer

Both the factors immediately affect the distribution of population. People prefer favourable conditions for farming, manufacturing and service activities. For example, the Ganga plains are the most densely populated areas of the world. On the other hand, mountains and plateaus do not provide these. For example, the Himalayas where people do not like to live and therefore these areas are sparsely populated. Thus, topography of a place matters a lot in human settlement. So far the climate of a place

is concerned people usually avoid extreme climates, i.e. very hot or very cold. For example Sahara desert, polar regions of Russia, Canada and Antarctica are thinly populated.

3. Describe how various factors affect population distribution.

Answer

Topography, favourable climate, fertility of soils, availability of fresh water, minerals are major geographical factors affecting population density of a region. People prefer to live on plains more than mountains or plateaus and they live more in moderate climates than extreme hot or cold. From the agriculture point of view, fertile lands are preferred. Areas with mineral deposits are more populated. Some social factors that boost the density of population in a region are better housing, education and health facilities. Places with cultural or historical significance are usually populated. Employment opportunities are another attraction for large chunks of population.

4. Why was the total increase in the world's population very slow till the 1800s?

Answer

For a very long period of human history, until the 1800s, the population of the world grew steadily but slowly. This was because birth rate and death rate were almost the same. A large number of babies were born, but they died earlier too. This happened as a result of poor health facilities. Sufficient food was also not available for all the people. Farmers were not able to produce enough to meet the food requirements of all the people. Thus, non-availability of medical facilities and sufficient food kept the world’s population steady till 1800s.

5. What are the factors affecting the population change in a region?

Answer

Factors affecting the population change in a region are birth rate, death rate and migrations. Birth rate is a statistic that measures the number of live births per 1000 people. Death rate is a statistic that measures the number of deaths per 1000 people. Along with birth and death rate, another factor affecting population change is migration. Migration refers to the movement of people from one area to another. People leaving a country are called emigrants and the phenomenon is called emigration. People arriving in a country are called immigrants and the phenomenon is called immigration.

Chapter 6 Human Resources Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. What is the general trend of migration? Mention the factors that cause population change.

Answer

The general trend of migrations is from the less developed nations to the more developed nations in search of better employment opportunities. Within countries a large number of people move from the rural to urban areas in search of employment, education and health facilities.

Factors that cause population change are: births, deaths and migrations.

Births are usually measured using the birth rate, i.e. the number of live birth per 1,000 people. Death are usually measured using the death rate, i.e., the number of deaths per 1,000 people. Births and

deaths are natural causes of population change. Migration is another way by which population the size of changes. People may move within a country or between countries. Countries like the USA and Australia have gained in numbers by immigration. Sudan is a country that has experienced a loss of population numbers due to emigration.

ISCE Board| Latest News and Announcements

ISCE also called the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education Examination is a school examination conducted by the Council for the Indian School Certificate Examination (CISCE) in accordance with the recommendations of the New Education Policy 1986, through English medium. CISCE is a private board headquartered in New Delhi. There are total 2,341 schools which are affiliated to CISCE board where ICSE held.

Latest News

ISCE total requires ten year of a student from Class 1 to 10. The board has various regulations and standard through which a student can develop their skills to do better in future. The board is well renowned for its difficulty and vastness of syllabus.

Generally, the beginning of the academic year in Schools affiliated to the Council shall be from the middle of March and the first week of June each year. in the case of candidates who are being entered for the first time, is restricted to candidates with a minimum of 75% attendance of the working days during each year of the two year course at schools affiliated to the board.

Primary Classes (Class 1 to 5)

CICSE has not made detailed syllabus for the Class 1 to 5. The schools affiliated can select their own textbook which are suitable for students but as per the modules released by the board for primary classes.

In Preschool, the curriculum promote children’s learning through enriched play experiences. The subjects are

In Class 1 and 2, English has been treated as the first language. Hindi and Mathematics is also there. Environmental Studies (E and VS) is presented that follow thematic approach.

In Class 3 to 5, other than English, Hindi and Mathematics, Science and Social Science has also been included in the syllabus that addresses concepts from various themes. Computer Studies has also been adopted with a focus on use of technology in Education. Arts Education will be also promoted in children that follows a theme-based approach.

Upper Primary Classes (Class 6 to 8)

CICSE has also not made detailed syllabus for the Class 6 to 8. The schools affiliated can select their own textbook which are suitable for students but as per the modules released by the board for upper primary classes. English, Hindi and Mathematics is included in the syllabus. Social Science has been divided into three parts History, Civics and Geography and Science has been also divided into Physics, Chemistry and Biology. Computer Studies curriculum focuses on acquisition of knowledge and skills in ICT so as to enable students to use common software applications and technology to access and utilize information. Arts Education will help in the development of creative expression and expression through visual art forms.

Secondary Classes (Class 9 and 10)

CICSE has prepared a set of books from which students can prepare for the exams in Class 9 and 10. For promotion from Class 9 to 10, a candidate is required to have obtained at least 33% marks in five subjects (severally) including English on the cumulative average and a minimum attendance of 75% of the working days.

ICSE Grading Pattern (Class 9 and 10)

There will be total 7 subjects in which four will compulsory and other three depend on choice. The board has divided subjects into three groups. Group 1 is compulsory but you can select any 2 subjects from group 2 and any 1 subject from group 3.

Group I

Subject Name	Percentage Marks External Exam	Percentage Marks - Internal Exam
English	80%	20%
A Second Language	80%	20%
History, Civics and Geography	80%	20%
Environmental Education	80%	20%

Group II

Subject Name	Percentage Marks External Exam	Percentage Marks - Internal Exam
Mathematics	80%	20%
Science (Physics, Chemistry, Biology)	80%	20%
Economics	80%	20%
Commercial Studies	80%	20%
Technical Drawing	80%	20%
A Modern Foreign Language	80%	20%
A Classical Language	80%	20%
Computer Science	80%	20%
Environmental Science	80%	20%
Agricultural Science	80%	20%

Group III

Subject Name	Percentage Marks External Exam	Percentage Marks - Internal Exam
Computer Applications	50%	50%
Economic Applications	50%	50%
Commercial Applications	50%	50%
Art	50%	50%
Performing Arts	50%	50%
Home Science	50%	50%
Cookery	50%	50%
Fashion Designing	50%	50%
Physical Education	50%	50%
Yoga	50%	50%
Technical Drawing Applications	50%	50%
Environmental Applications	50%	50%
A Modern Foreign Language	50%	50%

• Candidates may offer one/two of the languages listed below:

Ao Naga, Assamese, Bengali, Dzongkha, Garo, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Khasi, Kashmiri, Lepcha, Malayalam, Marathi, Manipuri, Mizo, Nepali, Odia, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Tamil, Tangkhul, Telugu, Tenydie, Urdu or any other official Indian language approved by the Council provided the school has the required infrastructure and experienced teachers.

One of the Foreign Languages listed below provided the school has the required infrastructure and experienced teachers/ resource persons. French, German, Spanish or any other foreign language approved by the Council.

• The duration of both theory and practical examinations would be three hours each.

• History, Civics and Geography (Thailand) may be offered mainly by the candidates of Thai nationality

• It is expected that candidates will normally offer both Science and Mathematics from Group II.

• The following subject combinations are not permitted for the ICSE Examination:

- Sanskrit as a Second Language (Group I) and Sanskrit as a Classical Language (Group II).

- Economics (Group II) and Economic Applications (Group III).

- Commercial Studies (Group II) and Commercial Applications (Group III).

- Environmental Science (Group II) and Environmental Applications (Group III).

- History, Civics and Geography and History, Civics and Geography (Thailand).

- Under Modern Foreign Language:

▪ Candidates opting for a Modern Foreign Language as a Second Language in Group I, may not opt for the same language under Modern Foreign Languages in Group II and Group III.

ISC Board| Latest News and Announcements

ISC also called Indian School Certificate is an exam conducted by the Council for the Indian School Certificate Examination (CISCE) in accordance with the recommendations of the New Education Policy 1986, through English medium after a two-year course of studies beyond the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education (Year-10) Examination or its equivalent. There are total 2,341 schools which are affiliated to CISCE board where ICSE held.

The beginning of the academic year in Schools affiliated to the Council shall be from the middle of March and the first week of June each year. However, the Hill schools may begin the academic year from February each year.

The board has detailed the syllabus and standard books for Class 11 and 12. One has to study from the books to score better marks in the examinations. For promotions from Class 11 to 12, a student is required to have obtained at least 35% marks in a minimum of four subjects which must include English, on the cumulative average and a minimum attendance of 75% of the working days.

ISC Board Syllabus

English is the compulsory subject in ISC other than this a student can select three, four or five elective subjects from the list provided below.

Compulsory Subject

English

Elective Subjects

An Indian Language

A Modern Foreign Language

A Classical Language

Elective English

History

Political Science

Geography

Sociology

Psychology

Economics

Commerce

Accounts

Business Studies

Mathematics

Physics

Chemistry

Biology

Home Science

Fashion Designing

Electricity & Electronics

Engineering Science

Computer Science

Geometrical & Mechanical Drawing

Geometrical & Building Drawing

Art

Music (Indian or Western)

Physical Education

Environmental Science

Biotechnology

Mass Media & Communication

Legal Studies

Hospitality Management

• The following subject combinations are not permitted for the ISC Examination:

(i) Physics with Engineering Science.

(ii) Geometrical & Mechanical Drawing with Geometrical & Building Drawing

• A candidate may not enter for more than six subjects including the compulsory subject English.

• The pass mark for each subject is 35%.