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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 7 Conservation of Plants and Animals Science

Page No: 86

Excercise

1. Fill in the blanks:
(a) A place where animals are protected in their natural habitat is called a __ .
(b) Species found only in a particular area are known as ______.
(c) Migratory birds fly to far away places because of _____ changes.

Answer

(a) A place where animals are protected in their natural habitat is called a sanctuary.

(b) Species found only in a particular area are known as endemic.

(c) Migratory birds fly to far away places because of climatic changes.

2. Differentiate between the following.

(a) Wildlife sanctuary and biosphere reserve

Wildlife sanctuary
Biosphere reserve
It is an area within which animals are protected from possible dangers such as hunting. Their habitat is also conserved in this area.It is a large protected area constructed for the conservation of biodiversity.
It provides protection and suitable living conditions to wild animals.It helps in the conservation of various life forms such as plants, animals, and micro-organisms.

(b) Zoo and wildlife sanctuary

Zoo
Wild life sanctuary
Zoos are smaller places having some animals protected for the public view.Wildlife Sanctuary are larger places having wild animals in their natural habitat
It is an artificial habitat.It conserves the natural habitat of animals.
It provides protection only.It provides protection and suitable living condition to wild animals.

(c) Endangered and extinct species

Endangered species
Extinct species
It is a population of species that is on the verge of becoming extinct.It is a population of species that no longer exists. Hence, it is extinct.
Blue whale, tiger, leopard, etc. are examples of endangered species.Dodo, passenger pigeon, etc. are examples of extinct species.

(d) Flora and fauna

Flora
Fauna
It refers to all living plants in a particular area.It refers to all animals living in a particular area.
Sal, teak, mango, etc. form the flora of Pachmarhi biosphere reserve.Leopard, wolf, wild dog, etc. form the fauna of Pachmarhi biosphere reserve.

3. Discuss the effects of deforestation on the following.

(a) Wild animals: When forests are cut, the natural habitat of the animals is destroyed. Without the natural habitat the animals are left with no place to live and breed. As a result of this many animals are at the verge of extinction.

(b) Environment: Environment is adversely affected by deforestation as ecological balance is disturbed. Carbon dioxide is not absorbed by plants and it gets accumulated in the atmosphere to cause global warming which increases the temprature of earth and disturb water cycle.

(c) Villages (Ruaral Areas): Deforestation leads to soil erosion and results in flash floods. This hampers agricultural activities and thus disturbs the people in rural areas.

(d) Cities (Urban Areas): Deforestation in cities can increase the risk of many natural calamities such as floods and droughts in that area.

(e) Earth: The whole earth is full of various ecosystems which together make the biosphere. Deforestation disturbs the balance in the biosphere. It disturbs climatic patterns.

(f) The next generation: They will not be able to see wide variety of flora and fauna also not get clean and cool environment. They will have to breathe poisonous gas. Life would be very difficult for the next generation.

4. What will happen if:
(a) we go on cutting trees.
(b) the habitat of an animal is disturbed.
(c) the top layer of soil is exposed.

Answer

(a) If we go on cutting trees then:
→ Earth will loose its top fertile soil layer and get conevrted into desert.
→ The ecological balance will get disturbed and and floods and drought will become more frequent.
→ Wildlife will also be affected.

(b) The habitat of an animal provides it with necessities such as shelter, food, and protection. If the habitat of an animal is disturbed, then it will be forced to go to other places in search of food and shelter. The animal could get killed by other animals in this process.

(c) If the top layer of soil is exposed, then it will gradually expose the lower layer of soil, which is hard and rocky in nature. This type of soil is less fertile as it contains less humus. Continued soil erosion will make the land barren or infertile.

5. Answer in brief:

(a) Why should we conserve biodiversity?

Answer

We should conserve biodiversity because it is very important for all living organisms and for the environment. We should conserve biodiversity to save it from becoming extinct.

(b) Protected forests are also not completely safe for wild animals. Why?

Answer

Protected forests are not completely safe for wild animals because people who live near or adjacent to forests use resources from forests to fulfil their own requirements. In this process, wild animals are killed and sold for lucrative amounts of money.

(c) Some tribals depend on the jungle. How?

Answer

Tribals gather food, fodder, and fallen branches of trees from forests. Hence, they depend on forests for their daily requirements.

(d) What are the causes and consequences of deforestation?

Answer

The main cause of deforestation is growing urbanization and industrialization. Need for more land and resources have lead to the cutting down of forests.
Consequences of deforestation are as follows:
→ Soil erosion
→ Depletion of groundwater
→ Flash flood
→ Global warming

(e) What is Red Data Book?

Answer

Red Data Book is a source book that maintains an international list of all endangered animal and plant species.

(f) What do you understand by the term migration?

Answer

Migration refers to the movement of an organism or a group of organisms from its natural habitat to another place at a particular time every year.

6. In order to meet the ever-increasing demand in factories and for shelter, trees are being continually cut. Is it justified to cut trees for such projects? Discuss and prepare a brief report.

Answer

No. It is not at all justified to cut trees to meet the ever increasing demands of human population. Forests are the habitat of several organisms including wild animals. They provide us with good quality air as they give out O2 and absorb the harmful CO2 gas from the atmosphere. In the process, they prevent the excessive heating of the atmosphere. They prevent soil erosion and natural calamities such as floods and droughts. They increase the fertility of the soil and help conserve biodiversity. The cutting of forests to meet the demands of growing human population will lead to global warming, soil erosion, greenhouse effect, droughts, floods, and many more problems. The destruction of forests will disturb the balance of nature. Hence, forests must be conserved.

7. How can you contribute to the maintenance of green wealth of your locality? Make a list of actions to be taken by you.

Answer

We can contribute to the maintenance of green wealth by taking following actions:
→ We can grow new plants in our locality.
→ Water them regularly and care of them.
→ The existing plants should be properly nourished.
→ Encouraging awareness among the people in the locality about the importance of growing trees.

8. Explain how deforestation leads to reduced rainfall.

Answer

Plants absorb water from the soil and evaporates it to form clouds. Deforestation leads to cutting down of trees. As a result less water is absorbed from the soil and it disturbs the water cycle. The formation of clouds become difficult which leads to reduced rainfall.

10. Why should paper be saved? Prepare a list of ways by which you can save paper.

Answer

Paper should be saved because it takes around seventeen full grown trees to make one tonne of paper. Trees, as we know, are important to maintain a balance of nature. Therefore, in order to save trees and prevent the impact of their loss on living organisms, we need to save paper.
Ways by which paper can be saved:
→ Collect used paper and recycle it.
→ Use both sides of a paper for writing.
→ Spread awareness about the importance of paper.
→ Use paper intelligently.

11. Complete the world puzzle.

Down
1. Species on the verge of extinction.
2. A book carrying information about endangered species.
5. Consequence of deforestation.

Across
1. Species which have vanished.
3. Species found only in a particular habitat.
4. Variety of plants, animals and microorganisms found in an area.


Answer

Down
1. ENDANGERED
2. RED DATA BOOK
5. DESERTS

Across
1. EXTINCT
3. ENDEMIC
4. BIODIVERSITY



NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 8 Cell - Structure and Functions Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 8 Cell - Structure and Functions Science

Page No: 100

Excercise

1. Indicate whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).

(a) Unicellular organisms have one-celled body. (T / F)
► True

(b) Muscle cells are branched. (T / F)
► Flase

(c) The basic living unit of an organism is an organ. (T / F)
► False

(d) Amoeba has irregular shape. (T / F)
► True

2. Make a sketch of the human nerve cell. What function do nerve cells perform?

Answer

The function of a nerve cell is to transmit messages to the brain and also to take away messages from the brain to the receptor organs.

3. Write short notes on the following.

(a) Cytoplasm: It is a fluid that fills the cell and occurs between the plasma membrane and the nucleus. Cell organelles such as mitochondria, ribosomes, Golgi bodies, etc. are suspended in the cytoplasm. The cytoplasm helps in the exchange of materials between cell organelles.

(b) Nucleus of a cell: Nucleus is the master of the cell. It commands all the functioning of the cell. It is generally located in the center of the cell and is spherical in shape. A membrane called nuclear membrane separates it from cytoplasm. It contains the genetic material DNA and RNA in it. This porous membrane allows the transfer of material in the nucleus and cytoplasm. Nucleus contains a dense body called Nucleolus which actually contains Chromosomes, the genetic material.

4. Which part of the cell contains organelles?

Answer

Cytoplasm is the part of the cell that contains various organelles such as mitochondria, ribosomes, Golgi bodies, etc.

5. Make sketches of animal and plant cells. State three differences between them.

Answer


Animal cell
Plant cell
They are generally small in size.They are usually larger than animal cells.
Cell wall is absent.Cell wall is present.
Vacuoles are small in size.Vacuoles are larger in size.
No other animal cell possesses plastids except for the protozoan Euglena.Plastids are present.

6. State the difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes.

Answer

Prokaryotes
Eukaryotes
Most prokaryotes are unicellular.Most eukaryotes are multicellular.
The nucleus is poorly defined due to the absence of a nuclear membrane.The nucleus is well defined and is surrounded by a nuclear membrane.
Nucleolus is absentNucleolus is present.
Cell organelles such as plastids, mitochondria, golgi bodies, etc. are absent.Cell organelles such as plastids, mitochondria, golgi bodies, etc. are present.
Bacteria and blue-green algae are prokaryotic cells.Fungi, plant, and animal cells are eukaryotic cells.

7. Where are chromosomes found in a cell? State their function.

Answer

Chromosomes are found in the nucleus of a cell. Their function is to carry characteristic features of parent cells to the daughter cell means, from parent to offspring.

8. 'Cells are the basic structural units of living organisms'. Explain.

Answer

In Biology, the basic unit of which all living things are composed is known as ‘cell’. The ‘cell’ is the smallest structural unit of living matter that is capable of functioning independently. A single cell can be a complete organism in itself, as in bacteria and protozoans. A unicellular organism also captures and digests food, respires, excretes, grows, and reproduces. Similar functions in multi-cellular organisms are carried out by groups of specialized cells which are organized into tissues and organs such as, the higher plants and animals. Hence, ‘cell’ is known as the basic structural and functional unit of life.

9. Explain why chloroplasts are found only in plant cells?

Answer

Chloroplasts are found only in plant cells because they are required for photosynthesis.

10. Complete the crossword with the help of clues given below.

Across
1. This is necessary for photosynthesis.
3. Term for component present in the cytoplasm.
6. The living substance in the cell.
8. Units of inheritance present on the chromosomes.

Down
1. Green plastids.
2. Formed by collection of tissues.
4. It separates the contents of the cell from the surrounding medium.
5. Empty structure in the cytoplasm.
7. A group of cells.

Answer


Across
1. CHLOROPHYLL
3. ORGANELLE
6. PROTOPLASM
8. GENES

Down
1. CHLOROPLASTS
2. ORGAN
4. MEMBRANE
5. VACUOLE
7. TISSUE


NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 9 Reproduction in Animals Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 9 Reproduction in Animals Science

Page No: 110

Excercise

1. Explain the importance of reproduction in organisms.

Answer

Reproduction is very important for the organisms. The organisms reproduce to produce young ones like them. It helps to carry on their generation. If reproduction does not take place, no living being will survive on the earth. Had the process of reproduction not been there then all the plants and animals would have become extinct. Secondly, special characters of an organism are carried over to its next generation through reproduction only.

2. Describe the process of fertilization in human beings.

Answer

Fertilization involves the fusion of the male and the female gamete. The male and the female gametes are released from the male and the female reproductive organs. Sperms or male gametes are released from the male reproductive organ i.e., the penis. These sperms then enter the female body through the vagina. Then, they travel through the fallopian tubes where they meet the eggs. Hence, the process of fertilization takes place in the fallopian tubes. During fertilization, the haploid nucleus of the sperm and that of the ovum fuse with each other to form the zygote. This zygote divides to form an embryo which in turn develops into a foetus.

3. Choose the most appropriate answer.

(a) Internal fertilization occurs
(i) in female body.
(ii) outside female body.
(iii) in male body.
(iv) outside male body.
► (i) in female body.

(b) A tadpole develops into an adult frog by the process of
(i) fertilization
(ii) metamorphosis
(iii) embedding
(iv) budding
► (ii) metamorphosis

(c) The number of nuclei present in a zygote is
(i) none
(ii) one
(iii) two
(iv) four
► (ii) one

4. Indicate whether the following statements are True (T) or False (F).

(a) Oviparous animals give birth to young ones. ( )
► False

(b) Each sperm is a single cell. ( )
► True

(c) External fertilization takes place in frogs. ( )
► True

(d) A new human individual develops from a cell called gamete. ( )
► Flase

(e) Egg laid after fertilization is made up of a single cell. ( )
► True

(f) Amoeba reproduces by budding. ( )
► False

(g) Fertilization is necessary even in asexual reproduction. ( )
► False

(h) Binary fission is a method of asexual reproduction. ( )
► True

(i) A zygote is formed as a result of fertilization. ( )
► True

(j) An embryo is made up of a single cell. ( )
► False

5. Give two differences between a zygote and a foetus.

Answer

Zygote
Foetus
It is a fertilized egg formed after the fusion of the sperm with the egg.It is a stage of the embryo that shows all the main recognizable body parts of a mature organism.
The zygote divides several times to form an embryo.An embryo gradually develops into a foetus.

6. Define asexual reproduction. Describe two methods of asexual reproduction in animals.

Answer

Asexual reproduction is that type of reproduction in which only single parent is involved. Asexual reproduction takes place by different methods like Budding, Binary fission etc.

→ Budding: This type of reproduction takes place in Hydra and Bacteria. A part of the organism starts bulging out. Slowly it grows and develops into a separate individual.

→ Binary fission – In this type of reproduction, a single organism gets divided into two. This type of reproduction takes place in Amoeba. The nucleus of the Amoeba gets divided into two followed by division of their bodies, each part getting one nucleus and developing into a separate individual.

7. In which female reproductive organ does the embryo get embedded?

Answer

The embryo gets embedded in the wall of the uterus.

8. What is metamorphosis? Give examples.

Answer

The transformation of the larva into adult through drastic changes is called metamorphosis. Frogs and insects are examples of organisms showing metamorphosis.


9. Differentiate between internal fertilization and external fertilization.

Answer

Internal fertilization
External fertilization
It involves the fusion of the male and the female gamete inside the female body.It involves the fusion of the male and the female gamete outside the female body.
Chances of the survival of the offspring are more. Therefore, a small number of eggs are produced.Chances of survival of the offspring are less. Therefore, a large number of eggs are produced.
Humans, cows, hens are organisms showing internal fertilization.Fish, frog, starfish are organisms showing external fertilization.

Page No: 111

10. Complete the crossword puzzle using the hints given below.

Across
1. The process of the fusion of the gametes.
6. The type of fertilization in hen.
7. The term used for bulges observed on the sides of the body of Hydra.
8. Eggs are produced here.

Down
2. Sperms are produced in these male reproductive organs.
3. Another term for the fertilized egg.
4. These animals lay eggs.
5. A type of fission in amoeba.

Answer

Across
1. FERTILIZATION
6. INTERNAL
7. BUDS
8. OVARY

Down
2. TESTIS
3. ZYGOTE
4. OVIPAROUS
5. BINARY

NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 10 Reaching the Age of Adolescence Science

Page No: 124

Excercise

1. What is the term used for secretions of endocrine glands responsible for changes taking place in the body?

Answer

Hormones are chemical substances which are secreted by endocrine glands. They are responsible for changes taking place in the body.

2. Define adolescence.

Answer

Adolescence is the period of life, when the body undergoes changes, leading to reproductive maturity. It begins around the age of 11 and lasts till 18 or 19 years of age. The period of adolescence may vary from person to person.

3. What is menstruation? Explain.

Answer

Menstruation is the process of the shedding of the uterine lining on a regular monthly basis in woman. During menstruation the uterus wall along with blood vessels break off. This causes blood to come out and a new wall of uterus is formed. Menstruation lasts generally lasts for 4 to 5 days.

4. List changes in the body that take place at puberty.

Answer

Changes at puberty:
→ Sudden increase in height and weight.
→ Broadening of shoulders and widening of chest in boys. In girls, the region below waist becomes wider.
→ In boys, under the influence of hormones, the larynx becomes prominent, the vocal cords become longer and thicker. These changes cause the voice to become hoarse.
→ Appearance of hair in areas such as underarms, face, hands, and legs.
→ Appearance of acne as a result of excessive secretion of oil from skin.
→ Testis grows and starts producing sperms in males, whereas in females, the ovary enlarges and starts producing matured eggs.

5. Prepare a table having two columns depicting names of endocrine glands and hormones secreted by them.

Answer

Endocrine gland
Hormones
Testis
Testosterone
Ovary
Oestrogen
Thyroid
Thyroxin
Adrenal
Adrenalin
Pancreas
Insulin
Pituitary
Growth hormone

6. What are sex hormones? Why are they named so? State their function.

Answer

Sex hormones are the hormones that control the development of secondary sexual characteristics and also regulate the proper functioning of the sex organs. They are named so because they are produced in both males and females by the respective sex organs under the influence of the pituitary gland.
Functions of sex hormones:
→ Testosterone: This hormone brings about secondary sex characters in boys such as the growth of a beard, the voice becoming hoarse, development of reproductive organs, etc.
→ Oestrogen: This hormone is responsible for the development of secondary sexual characters in females such as the enlargement of breasts, development of female reproductive organs, etc.

7. Choose the correct option.

(a) Adolescents should be careful about what they eat, because
(i) proper diet develops their brains.
(ii) proper diet is needed for the rapid growth taking place in their body.
(iii) adolescents feel hungry all the time.
(iv) taste buds are well developed in teenagers.
► (ii) proper diet is needed for the rapid growth taking place in their body.

(b) Reproductive age in women starts when their
(i) menstruation starts.
(ii) breasts start developing.
(iii) body weight increases.
(iv) height increases.
► (i) menstruation starts.

(c) The right meal for adolescents consists of
(i) chips, noodles, coke.
(ii) chapatti, dal, vegetables.
(iii) rice, noodles and burger.
(iv) vegetable cutlets, chips and lemon drink.
► (ii) chapatti, dal, vegetables.

8. Write notes on -

(a) Adam's apple: The protruding part of the throat is called Adam’s apple. It is the enlarged voice box or larynx which gets enlarged and visible from outside in boys at the onset of puberty. This makes the voice of boys hoarse.

(b) Secondary sexual characters: These are features features that help in distinguishing the male and the female body from each other. They are physical or behavioural characteristics that appear in humans at the time of puberty.
Secondary sexual characters in boys:
→ Appearance of moustache and beard.
→ Appearance of chest hair.
→ Growth of hair in genital area and other parts of the skin.
Secondary sexual character in girls:
→ Increase in breast size and darkening of the skin of nipples present at the tip of the breasts.
→ Growth of hair in genital area and other body parts.
→ Sex determination in the unborn baby.

(c) Sex determination in an unborn baby: Sex of a unborn baby depends upon the pair of sex chromosomes that are present in the cells of the baby. The two sex chromosomes are X and Y. The unfertilised egg always has one X chromosome.But sperms are of two kinds. One kind has an X chromosome, and the other kind has a Y chromosome.
If both the chromosmes are X then the baby is girl.
If one of the chromosomes are X and the other is Y then the baby is boy.

Page No: 125

9. Word game: Use the clues to work out the words.

Across
3. Protruding voice box in boys
4. Glands without ducts
7. Endocrine gland attached to brain
8. Secretion of endocrine glands
9. Pancreatic hormone
10. Female hormone

Down
1. Male hormone
2. Secretes thyroxin
3. Another term for teenage
5. Hormone reaches here through blood stream
6. Voice box
7. Term for changes at adolescence
Question No. 9

Answer

Answer No. 9
Across
3. ADAM'S APPLE
4. ENDOCRINE
7. PITUITARY
8. HORMONE
9. INSULIN
10. ESTROGEN

Down
1. TESTOSTERONE
2. THYROID
3. ADOLESCENCE
5. TARGET SITE
6. LARYNX
7. PUBERTY

Page No: 126

10. The table below shows the data on likely heights of boys and girls as they grow in age. Draw graphs showing height and age for both boys and girls on the same graph paper. What conclusions can be drawn from these graphs?
Age (Years)
Height (cm)
Boys Girls
0
53
53
4
96
92
8
114
110
12
129
133
16
150
150
20
173
165

Question No 10 Graph











Answer

The graph depicts the relation between the age and height of both boys and girls. During puberty, there is a sudden increase in height of both boys and girls. On the basis of the above graph, it can be observed that during the age of 4-8 years, girls have less height as compared to boys. However, as soon as girls reach 12- 13 years, their height shows a sudden increase and becomes more than boys. In later years, growth in both sexes becomes stable. Growth during puberty is under the control of hormones.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 11 Force and Pressure Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 11 Force and Pressure Science

Page No: 142

Excercise

1. Give two examples each of situations in which you push or pull to change the state of motion of objects.

Answer

Two examples of push force are as follows:
→ A heavy box at rest is pushed to move it from one room to another. This changes the state of motion of the box.
→ A player pushes a football using his foot. This changes the state of motion of the ball.

Two examples of pull force are as follows:
→ Rope is pulled to draw water from a well. This changes the state of motion of the water bucket.
→ A drawer is pulled to open it. This changes the state of motion of the drawer.

2. Give two examples of situations in which applied force causes a change in the shape of an object.

Answer

Two examples of forces that cause a change in the shape of an object are as follows:
→ Making of bread from dough
→ Deformation of clay by pressing it between the hands.

3. Fill in the blanks in the following statements.
(a) To draw water from a well we have to _________at the rope.
(b) A charged body ________an uncharged body towards it.
(c) To move a loaded trolley we have to _________it.
(d) The north pole of a magnet ________the north pole of another magnet.

Answer

(a) To draw water from a well we have to pull at the rope.
(b) A charged body attracts an uncharged body towards it.
(c) To move a loaded trolley we have to push or pull it.
(d) The north pole of a magnet repels the north pole of another magnet.

Page No: 143

4. An archer stretches her bow while taking aim at the target. She then releases the arrow, which begins to move towards the target. Based on this information fill up the gaps in the following statements using the following terms.


muscular, contact, non-contact, gravity, friction, shape, attraction

(a) To stretch the bow, the archer applies a force that causes a change in its _______.
(b) The force applied by the archer to stretch the bow is an example of ________force.
(c) The type of force responsible for a change in the state of motion of the arrow is an example of a_______ force.
(d) While the arrow moves towards its target, the forces acting on it are due to ________and that due to ________of air.

Answer

(a) To stretch the bow, the archer applies a force that causes a change in its shape.

(b) The force applied by the archer to stretch the bow is an example of muscular force.

(c) The type of force responsible for a change in the state of motion of the arrow is an example of a contact force.

(d) While the arrow moves towards its target, the forces acting on it are due to gravity and that due to friction of air.

5. In the following situations identify the agent exerting the force and the object on which it acts. State the effect of the force in each case.

(a) Squeezing a piece of lemon between the fingers to extract its juice.

Answer

Agent exerting the force – Fingers
Object on which force acts – Lemon
Effect of force – Change in shape of lemon

(b) Taking out paste from a toothpaste tube.

Answer

Agent exerting the force – Fingers
Object on which force acts – toothpaste tube
Effect of force – Change in shape of toothpaste tube.

(c) A load suspended from a spring while its other end is on a hook fixed to a wall.

Answer

Agent exerting the force – Load
Object on which force acts – Spring
Effect of force – Change in shape of spring.

(d) An athlete making a high jump to clear the bar at a certain height.

Answer

Agent exerting the force – Muscles of Athlete
Object on which force acts – Athlete
Effect of force – Change of state of motion of athlete

6. A blacksmith hammers a hot piece of iron while making a tool. How does the force due to hammering affect the piece of iron?

Answer

When a blacksmith hammers a hot piece of iron, he uses his muscular force. This muscular force changes the shape of the iron so that it can be given a desired shape.

7. An inflated balloon was pressed against a wall after it has been rubbed with a piece of synthetic cloth. It was found that the balloon sticks to the wall. What force might be responsible for the attraction between the balloon and the wall?

Answer

Electrostatic force is responsible for the attraction between the balloon and the wall.

8. Name the forces acting on a plastic bucket containing water held above ground level in your hand. Discuss why the forces acting on the bucket do not bring a change in its state of motion.

Answer

In this case, muscular force is acting in upward direction and the force of gravity is acting in downward direction. Both forces are acting in opposite directions to each other and hence nullify the effect of each other. Due to this, there is no change in the state of motion of the bucket.

9. A rocket has been fired upwards to launch a satellite in its orbit. Name the two forces acting on the rocket immediately after leaving the launching pad.

Answer

The two forces acting on the rocket are the force of gravity, which pulls the rocket towards the ground, and the force of friction due to earth's atmosphere, which opposes its motion.

10. When we press the bulb of a dropper with its nozzle kept in water, air in the dropper is seen to escape in the form of bubbles. Once we release the pressure on the bulb, water gets filled in the dropper. The rise of water in the dropper is due to
(a) pressure of water.
(b) gravity of the earth.
(c) shape of rubber bulb
(d) atmospheric pressure

Answer

(d) atmospheric pressure


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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 12 Friction Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 12 Friction Science

Page No: 155

Excercise

1. Fill in the blanks.
(a) Friction opposes the ________between the surfaces in contact with each other.
(b) Friction depends on the _________of surfaces.
(c) Friction produces _________.
(d) Sprinkling of powder on the carrom board ________friction.
(e) Sliding friction is ________than the static friction.

Answer

(a) Friction opposes the motion between the surfaces in contact with each other.
(b) Friction depends on the nature of surfaces.
(c) Friction produces heat.
(d) Sprinkling of powder on the carrom board reduces friction.
(e) Sliding friction is less than the static friction.

2. Four children were asked to arrange forces due to rolling, static and sliding frictions in adecreasing order. Their arrangements are given below. Choose the correct arrangement.
(a) rolling, static, sliding
(b) rolling, sliding, static
(c) static, sliding, rolling
(d) sliding, static, rolling
► (c) static, sliding, rolling

3. Alida runs her toy car on dry marble floor, wet marble floor, newspaper and towel spread on the floor. The force of friction acting on the car on different surfaces in increasing orderwill be
(a) wet marble floor, dry marble floor, newspaper and towel.
(b) newspaper, towel, dry marble floor, wet marble floor.
(c) towel, newspaper, dry marble floor, wet marble floor
(d) wet marble floor, dry marble floor, towel, newspaper
► (a) wet marble floor, dry marble floor, newspaper and towel.

4. Suppose your writing desk is tilted a little. A book kept on it starts sliding down. Show the direction of frictional force acting on it.

Answer

Frictional force is acting opposite to the movement of the book i.e. upwards.

5. You spill a bucket of soapy water on a marble floor accidentally. Would it make it easier or more difficult for you to walk on the floor? Why?

Answer

It would make it more difficult for us to walk on a soapy floor because layer of soap makes floor smooth. The coating of soapy water reduces the friction and the foot can not make a proper grip on the floor and it starts getting to slip on the floor.

6. Explain why sportsmen use shoes with spikes.

Answer

Sportsman use shoes with spike to increase the friction so that the shoes do not slip while they run or play.

7. Iqbal has to push a lighter box and Seema has to push a similar heavier box on the same floor. Who will have to apply a larger force and why?

Answer

Seema will have to apply larger force since she will experience more frictional force because heavy object will be pressed hard against the opposite surface and produces more friction.

8. Explain why sliding friction is less than static friction.

Answer

Sliding friction is always less than static friction because two sliding objects find less time to get interlocked against each other’s irregularities of surfaces as a result of which they experience less friction.

9. Give examples to show that friction is both a friend and a foe.

Answer

Friction as friend:
→ We are able to walk because of friction.
→ Friction between the tip of the pen and a paper allows us to write.
Friction as foe:
→ Tyres and soles of shoes wear out because of friction.
→ Friction between the different parts of machines produces heat. This can damage the machines.

10. Explain why objects moving in fluids must have special shapes.

Answer

When a body moves through a fluid, it experiences an opposing force which tries to oppose its motion through the fluid. This opposing force is known as the drag force. This frictional force depends on the shape of the body. By giving objects a special shape, the force of friction acting on it can be minimised. Hence, it becomes easier for the body to move through the fluid.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 13 Sound Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 13 Sound Science

Page No: 168

Excercise

1. Choose the correct answer.
Sound can travel through
(a) gases only 
(b) solids only
(c) liquids only 
(d) solids, liquids and gases.
► (d) solids, liquids and gases.

2. Which of the following voices is likely to have minimum frequency?
(a) Baby girl 
(b) Baby boy
(c) A man 
(d) A woman
► (c) A man

Page No: 169

3. In the following statements, tick 'T' against those which are true, and 'F' against those which are false.

(a) Sound cannot travel in vacuum. (T / F)
► True

(b) The number of oscillations per second of a vibrating object is called its time period. (T / F)
► False

(c) If the amplitude of vibration is large, sound is feeble. (T / F)
► False

(d) For human ears, the audible range is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. (T / F)
► True

(e) The lower the frequency of vibration, the higher is the pitch. (T / F)
► False

(f) Unwanted or unpleasant sound is termed as music. (T / F)
► False

(g) Noise pollution may cause partial hearing impairment. (T/F)
► True

4. Fill in the blanks with suitable words.
(a) Time taken by an object to complete one oscillation is called _________.
(b) Loudness is determined by the________ of vibration.
(c) The unit of frequency is _________.
(d) Unwanted sound is called _________.
(e) Shrillness of a sound is determined by the _________of vibration.

Answer

(a) Time taken by an object to complete one oscillation is called time period.
(b) Loudness is determined by the amplitude of vibration.
(c) The unit of frequency is hertz (Hz).
(d) Unwanted sound is called noise.
(e) Shrillness of a sound is determined by the frequency of vibration.

5. A pendulum oscillates 40 times in 4 seconds. Find its time period and frequency.

Answer

Frequency of oscillations is the number of oscillations of a vibrating object per second. Therefore frequency is = 40 vibrations /4 seconds= 10 Hertz.
Time period is the time required to complete one oscillation. Or it is the inverse of time period. Therefore time period = 1/10 = 0.1 seconds.

6. The sound from a mosquito is produced when it vibrates its wings at an average rate of 500 vibrations per second. What is the time period of the vibration?

Answer

Time Period given by the inverse of the frequency.
Time Period= 1/Frequency of oscillation = 1/500 = 0.002 sec.

7. Identify the part which vibrates to produce sound in the following instruments.
(a) Dholak (b) Sitar (c) Flute

Answer

(a) Diaphragm (stretched membrane)
(b) String
(c) Air column

8. What is the difference between noise and music? Can music become noise sometimes?

Answer

Unwanted sound that is unpleasant to ear is called noise. A pleasant sound is called music.
Music can become noise at many instances. When someone tries to enjoy very loud music, it can be noise for someone else. When loud music is played during religious celebrations or marriages, it can be annoying for many people.

9. List sources of noise pollution in your surroundings.

Answer

Some sources of noise pollution are as follows:
→ Televisions and transistors running at high volumes
→ Loudspeakers and crackers
→ Horns of buses, cars and trucks
→ Home appliances such as mixer, desert cooler, etc.

10. Explain in what way noise pollution is harmful to humans.

Answer

Noise pollution is harmful to humans in many ways. Constant exposure to noise pollution can create many health related problems; like insomnia, hypertension and may even lead to loss of hearing.

11. Your parents are going to buy a house. They have been offered one on the roadside and another three lanes away from the roadside. Which house would you suggest your parents should buy? Explain your answer.

Answer

There will be more noise in the house which is along the roadside due to noise produced by transportation vehicles may cause trouble to the residents. On the other hand, the house which is three lanes away from the roadside would be quieter. Therefore, it is better to take the house that is three lanes away from the roadside.

12. Sketch larynx and explain its function in your own words.

Answer

Sketch of Layrnx

Larynx is a part of the throat. It is responsible for production of sound.

13. Lightning and thunder take place in the sky at the same time and at the same distance from us. Lightning is seen earlier and thunder is heard later. Can you explain?

Answer

The speed of sound is less than the speed of light. Due to this, light reaches to us faster than sound. Hence, during lightning we see the streak of light earlier than hearing the sound of thunder.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 14 Chemical Effects of Electric Current Science

Page No: 180

Excercise

1. Fill in the blanks.
(a) Most liquids that conduct electricity are solutions of ________, _______ and ________.
(b) The passage of an electric current through a solution causes _________ effects.
(c) If you pass current through copper sulphate solution, copper gets deposited on the plate connected to the __________ terminal of the battery.
(d) The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called _________.

Answer

(a) Most liquids that conduct electricity are solutions of acids, bases and salts.
(b) The passage of an electric current through a solution causes chemical effects.
(c) If you pass current through copper sulphate solution, copper gets deposited on the plate connected to the negative terminal of the battery.
(d) The process of depositing a layer of any desired metal on another material by means of electricity is called electroplating.

2. When the free ends of a tester are dipped into a solution, the magnetic needle shows deflection. Can you explain the reason?

Answer

Electric current produces magnetic effect which causes deflection of the magnetic needle of a compass. So, when the free ends of a tester are dipped into a solution which is a good conductor of electricity, the needle shows deflection.

3. Name three liquids, which when tested in the manner shown in Fig. 14.9, may cause the magnetic needle to deflect.
Fig 14.9

Answer

Liquids like lemon juice, salt water and vegetable oil allow electricity to pass through them. Hence, these liquids can be used as in the beaker to show the given effect.

Page No: 181

4. The bulb does not glow in the setup shown in Fig. 14.10. List the possible reasons. Explain your answer.

Answer

There could be several possible reasons for not glowing of the bulb:
→ The bulb may be fused.
→ Even after replacing the bulb if it does not glow, then the connection may be loose or faulty.
→ Even after checking and repairing the connections if the bulb does not glow that means the solution does not conduct electricity.

5. A tester is used to check the conduction of electricity through two liquids, labelled A and B. It is found that the bulb of the tester glows brightly for liquid A while it glows very dimly for liquid B. You would conclude that
(i) liquid A is a better conductor than liquid B.
(ii) liquid B is a better conductor than liquid A.
(iii) both liquids are equally conducting.
(iv) conducting properties of liquid cannot be compared in this manner.
► (i) liquid A is a better conductor than liquid B.

6. Does pure water conduct electricity? If not, what can we do to make it conducting?

Answer

No. Pure water does not conduct electricity. Pure water can conduct electricity when a pinch of common salt is added to it, as salt solution is conducting in nature.

7. In case of a fire, before the firemen use the water hoses, they shut off the main electrical supply for the area. Explain why they do this.

Answer

Water may conduct electricity. If the electrical supply for the area is not shut off and water is poured over electrical appliances, then electricity may pass through water and harm the firemen. That is why, in case of a fire, the firemen shut off the main electrical supply for the area before they use the water hoses.

8. A child staying in a coastal region tests the drinking water and also the seawater with his tester. He finds that the compass needle deflects more in the case of seawater. Can you explain the reason?

Answer

Sea water contains more dissolved salts than the drinking water. Hence, it is more conducting than the drinking water. Because of this reason, the compass needle deflects more in seawater than in the drinking water.

9. Is it safe for the electrician to carry out electrical repairs outdoors during heavy downpour? Explain.

Answer

No, it is very risky and unsafe for the electrician to carry out electrical repairs outdoors during heavy downpour because rain water contains dissolved salts. Therefore, rain water can conduct electricity. The electrician may get electrical shocks while working outdoors during rain.

10. Paheli had heard that rain water is as good as distilled water. So, she collected some rain water in a clean glass tumbler and tested it using a tester. To her surprise, she found that the compass needle showed deflection. What could be the reasons?

Answer

Rain water contains dissolved salts. This makes it a conducting solution. There are no dissolved salts present in the distilled water. Hence, rain water can allow electricity to pass through it while distilled water cannot.

11. Prepare a list of objects around you that are electroplated.

Answer

→ Cars bumpers and cycles handles are chromium plated to give them shiny appearance.
→ Artificial jewellery items are gold or silver plated.
→ Iron used in constructing a building is coated with a layer of zinc to protect it from rusting.

12. The process that you saw in Activity 14.7 is used for purification of copper. A thin plate of pure copper and a thick rod of impure copper are used as electrodes. Copper from impure rod is sought to be transferred to the thin copper plate. Which electrode should be attached to the positive terminal of the battery and why?

Answer

Copper ion is positively charged. It is attracted towards the plate which is connected to the negative terminal of the battery. As copper ions are transferred to the thin copper plate, this thin pure copper plate must be connected to the negative terminal of the battery. Consequently, impure copper rod is connected to the positive terminal of the battery.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 15 Some Natural Phenomena Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 15 Some Natural Phenomena Science

Page No: 197

Excercise

1. Which of the following cannot be charged easily by friction?
(a) A plastic scale
(b) A copper rod
(c) An inflated balloon
(d) A woollen cloth
► (b) A copper rod

2. When a glass rod is rubbed with a piece of silk cloth the rod
(a) and the cloth both acquire positive charge.
(b) becomes positively charged while the cloth has a negative charge.
(c) and the cloth both acquire negative charge.
(d) becomes negatively charged while the cloth has a positive charge.
► (b) becomes positively charged while the cloth has a negative charge.

3. Write T against true and F against false in the following statements.

(a) Like charges attract each other. (T / F)
► False

(b) A charged glass rod attracts a charged plastic straw. (T / F)
► True

(c) Lightning conductor cannot protect a building from lightning. (T/F)
► False

(d) Earthquakes can be predicted in advance. (T / F)
► False

4. Sometimes, a crackling sound is heard while taking off a sweater during winters. Explain.

Answer

Sweater is made of wool and generally shirt we wear is made of cotton blended with some synthetic fibers. Constant friction between the shirt and sweeter lets transfer of electrons from one material to the other. This results in building of electric potential. When enough potential has been accumulated, while taking of the sweater it discharges and transfer of electrons take place. Passage of electrons through air in the forms of spark let out heat and sound energy. Thus we hear the crackling sound and in dark rooms we may see the spark lights as well.

5. Explain why a charged body loses its charge if we touch it with our hand.

Answer

When we touch a charged body, with our hand, the excess of accumulated charge or static charges on it, gets transfer to ground through our body. Thus the charged body loses its charge, and becomes neutral.

6. Name the scale on which the destructive energy of an earthquake is measured. An earthquake measures 3 on this scale. Would it be recorded by a seismograph? Is it likely to cause much damage?

Answer

The destructive energy of an earthquake is measured on Richter Scale.
The reading of magnitude 3 on the Richter scale would be recorded by a seismograph.
If the Richter scale gives a reading of magnitude 3, then the earthquake is not likely to cause much damage. Generally, earthquake of magnitudes higher than 5 is considered destructive in nature.

7. Suggest three measures to protect ourselves from lightning.

Answer

Protective measures against lightning are:→ Stay indoor or under covered area.
→ Do not take bath during lightning.
→ Do not use any electrical appliances during lightning.

8. Explain why a charged balloon is repelled by another charged balloon whereas an uncharged balloon is attracted by another charged balloon?

Answer

A charged balloon is repelled by another charged balloon because both carry same charges and we know same charges repel each other whereas an uncharged balloon is attracted by charged balloon because unlike charges attract each other.

9. Describe with the help of a diagram an instrument which can be used to detect a charged body.

Answer

An electroscope can be used to detect whether a body is charged or not. The following figure shows a simple electroscope.
An Electroscope

In an Electroscope, two metal foils are are hanged with the help of a conductor in a glass jar with a lid. When a charged body touches this conductor, its charged gets transferred to the metal foil and they move apart due to like charges. This shows that an electrocope detects charges.

10. List three states in India where earthquakes are more likely to strike.

Answer

The three states in India where earthquakes are more likely to strike are Jammu and Kashmir,Gujrat, and Assam.

11. Suppose you are outside your home and an earthquake strikes. What precaution would you take to protect yourself?

Answer

Some of the precautions are:→ Try to move to an open space.
→ We should not take shelter under trees, buildings or overhead power lines.
→ If travelling in a bus or a car, then do not come out when an earthquake strikes. Ask the driver to drive in an open field.

12. The weather department has predicted that a thunderstorm is likely to occur on a certain day. Suppose you have to go out on that day. Would you carry an umbrella? Explain.

Answer

No. We should not carry an umbrella in a thunderstorm. During thunderstorms, which are accompanied with lightning, electric discharge from the clouds can travel through the metallic rod of the umbrella. This may give an electric shock to the person who is carrying it. Hence, it is not safe to carry an umbrella during lightning.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 16 Light Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 16 Light Science

Page No: 212

Excercises

1. Suppose you are in a dark room. Can you see objects in the room? Can you see objects outside the room? Explain.

Answer

We can see any object, when light reflected by that object reaches our eyes. But in the dark room, no light is reflected by the object so we are unable to see objects in dark room. If there is light present outside the room, then we can see the objects outside the room.

2. Differentiate between regular and diffused reflection. Does diffused reflection mean the failure of the laws of reflection?

Answer

Regular reflectionDiffused reflection
1.When all the parallel rays reflected from a plane surface are parallel, the reflection is known as regular reflectionWhen all the parallel rays reflected from a plane surface are not parallel, the reflection is known as diffused or irregular reflection
2.It takes place from a smooth or regular surfaceIt takes place from a rough surface
3.Images are formed by regular reflection.Images are not formed by irregular reflection.

The diffused reflection is not due to the failure of laws of reflection but caused by irregularities in the reflecting surface.

3. Mention against each of the following whether regular or diffused reflection will take place when a beam of light strikes. Justify your answer in each case.
(a) Polished wooden table 
(b) Chalk powder
(c) Cardboard surface 
(d) Marble floor with water spread over it
(e) Mirror 
(f) Piece of paper

Answer

(a) Regular reflection
A polished surface is an example of a smooth surface. A polished wooden table has a smooth surface. Hence, reflections from the polished table will be regular.

(b) Diffused reflection
Chalk power spread on a surface is an example of an irregular surface. It is not smooth. Therefore, diffused reflection will take place from chalk powder.

(c) Diffused reflection
Cardboard surface is also an example of an irregular surface. Hence, diffused reflection will take place from a cardboard surface.

(d) Regular reflection
Marble floor with water spread over it is an example of a regular surface. This is because water makes the marble surface smooth. Hence, regular reflection will take place from this surface.

(e) Regular reflection
Mirror has a smooth surface. Therefore, it will give a regular reflection.

(f) Diffused reflection
Although a piece of paper may look smooth, but it has many irregularities on its surface. Due to this reason, it will give a diffused reflection.

4. State the laws of reflection.

Answer

Laws of reflection are:
→ The angle of reflection is always equal to the angle of iincidence.
→ The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal to the reflective surface at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.

5. Describe an activity to show that the incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence lie in the same plane.

Answer

Place a plane mirror on the table. Take a paper sheet and make a small hole in its centre. Make sure that the light in the room is not bright. Hold the sheet normal to the table. Take another sheet and place it on the table in contact with the vertical mirror. Draw a normal line on the second sheet from the mirror. Now, light a torch on the mirror through the small hole such that the ray of light falls on the normal at the bottom of the mirror. When the ray from this hole is incident on the mirror, it gets reflected in a certain direction. You can easily observe the incident ray, reflected ray and the normal to the mirror at the point of incidence on the sheet placed on the table. This shows that the incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the surface at the point of incidence all lie in the same plane.

6. Fill in the blanks in the following.
(a) A person 1 m in front of a plane mirror seems to be ________ m away from his image.
(b) If you touch your ________ ear with your right hand in front of a plane mirror, it will be seen in the mirror that your right ear is touched with your _________.
(c) The size of the pupil becomes ________ when you see in dim light.
(d) Night birds have _________ cones than rods in their eyes.

Answer

(a) A person 1 m in front of a plane mirror seems to be 2 m away from his image.
(b) If you touch your left ear with your right hand in front of a plane mirror, it will be seen in the mirror that your right ear is touched with your left hand.
(c) The size of the pupil becomes large when you see in dim light.
(d) Night birds have less cones than rods in their eyes.

7. Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
(a) Always 
(b) Sometimes
(c) Under special conditions
(d) Never
► (a) Always 

8. Image formed by a plane mirror is
(a) virtual, behind the mirror and enlarged.
(b) virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object.
(c) real at the surface of the mirror and enlarged.
(d) real, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object.
► (b) virtual, behind the mirror and of the same size as the object.

9. Describe the construction of a kaleidoscope.

Answer

Three rectangular mirror strips of dimensions 15cm x 4cm (l x b) are joined together to form a prism. This prism is fixed into a circular cardboard tube. The circular cardboard tube should be slightly longer that the prism. This circular tube is now closed at one end with a cardboard disc. This disc has a hole in it through which we can see .At the other end of the circular tube, a plane glass plate is fixed. It is important that this glass plate touches the prism mirrors. On this glass plate, several small and broken pieces of coloured glass are placed. This end is now closed by a round glass plate allowing enough space for the coloured glass pieces to move.
Construction of Kaleidoscope

10. Draw a labelled sketch of the human eye.

Answer
Sketch of Human Eye

Page No: 213

11. Gurmit wanted to perform Activity 16.8 using a laser torch. Her teacher advised her not to do so. Can you explain the basis of the teacher's advice?

Answer

Laser light is harmful for the human eyes, because its intensity is very high. It can cause damage to the retina and lead to blindness. Hence, it is advisable not to look at a laser beam directly.

12. Explain how you can take care of your eyes.

Answer

We can take care of eyes by:
→ Visit an eye specialist regularly.
→ Avoid reading in dim light and very bright light.
→ Avoid direct exposure of sunlight to the eye.
→ Clean your eyes with cold water quickly if dust particles or small insects enter your eye. Do not rub your eyes.
→ Maintain a distance of at least 25 cm between the book and your eyes while reading.

13. What is the angle of incidence of a ray if the reflected ray is at an angle of 90° to the incident ray?

Answer

As per the laws of reflection
The angle of incidence ∠i = angle of reflection ∠r
Here as given ∠i + ∠r = 90°
∴ ∠i + ∠i = 90 °
or ∠i = 90/2 = 45 °
Hence angle of incidence of a ray = 45 degree

14. How many images of a candle will be formed if it is placed between two parallel plane mirrors separated by 40 cm?

Answer

15. Two mirrors meet at right angles. A ray of light is incident on one at an angle of 30° as shown in Fig. 16.19. Draw the reflected ray from the second mirror.









Answer

The first law of reflection is used to obtain the path of reflected light.









It can be observed that the given ray of light will reflect from the second mirror at an angle 60°.

16. Boojho stands at A just on the side of a plane mirror as shown in Fig. 16.20. Can he see himself in the mirror? Also can he see the image of objects situated at P, Q and R?









Answer

A plane mirror forms a virtual image behind the mirror. The image is as far behind the mirror as the object is in front of it. A cannot see his image because the length of the mirror is too short on his side. However, he can see the objects placed at points P and Q, but cannot see the object placed at point R (as shown in the given figure).











17. (a) Find out the position of the image of an object situated at A in the plane mirror (Fig. 16.21).
(b) Can Paheli at B see this image?
(c) Can Boojho at C see this image?
(d) When Paheli moves from B to C, where does the image of A move?








Answer

(a) Image of the object placed at A is formed behind the mirror. The distance of the image from the mirror is equal to the distance of A from the mirror. Image of A is shown in the given figure.










(b) Yes. Paheli at B can see this image.

(c) Yes. Boojho at C can see this image.

(d) Image of the object at A will not move. It will remain at the same position when Paheli moves from B to C.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 17 Stars and the Solar System Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 17 Stars and the Solar System Science

Page No: 234

Excercise

1. Which of the following is NOT a member of the solar system?
(a) An asteroid
(b) A satellite
(c) A constellation
(d) A comet
► (c) A constellation

2. Which of the following is NOT a planet of the sun?
(a) Sirius
(b) Mercury
(c) Saturn
(d) Earth
► (a) Sirius

3. Phases of the moon occur because
(a) we can see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us.
(b) our distance from the moon keeps changing.
(c) the shadow of the Earth covers only a part of the moon's surface.
(d) the thickness of the moon's atmosphere is not constant.
► (a) we can see only that part of the moon which reflects light towards us.

4. Fill in the blanks:
(a) The planet which is farthest from the sun is _________.
(b) The planet which appears reddish in colour is _________.
(c) A group of stars that appear to form a pattern in the sky is known as a __ _________.
(d) A celestial body that revolves around a planet is known as a_________.
(e) Shooting stars are actually not _________.
(f) Asteroids are found between the orbits of __________ and _________.

Answer

(a) The planet which is farthest from the sun is Neptune.
(b) The planet which appears reddish in colour is Mars.
(c) A group of stars that appear to form a pattern in the sky is known as a constellation.
(d) A celestial body that revolves around a planet is known as a satellite.
(e) Shooting stars are actually not stars.
(f) Asteroids are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

5. Mark the following statement as true (T) or false (F).

(a) Pole star is a member of the solar system. ( )
► False

(b) Mercury is the smallest planet of the solar system. ( )
► True

(c) Uranus is the farthest planet in the solar system. ( )
► False

(d) INSAT is an artificial satellite. ( )
► True

(e) There are nine planets in the solar system. ( )
► False

(f) Constellation Orion can be seen only with a telescope. ( )
► False

Page No: 235

6. Match items in column A with one or more items in column B.

A
B
(i)Inner planets (a)Saturn
(ii)Outer planets (b)Pole star
(iii)Constellation (c)Great Bear
(iv)Satellite of the Earth(d)Moon
(e)Earth
(f)Orion
(g)Mars

Answer

A
B
(i)Inner planets (g), (e)Mars, Earth
(ii)Outer planets (a)Saturn
(iii)Constellation (c), (f)Great Bear, Orion
(iv)Satellite of the Earth(d)Moon

7. In which part of the sky can you find Venus if it is visible as an evening star?

Answer

Venus appears in the western sky after sunset and is called the evening star.

8. Name the largest planet of the solar system.
► Jupiter

9. What is a constellation? Name any two constellations.

Answer

A constellation is a group of stars that form a recognisable pattern in the sky.
The two constellations name are Ursa Major and Orion.

10. Draw sketches to show the relative position of prominent stars in (a) Ursa Major and (b) Orion.

Answer

(a) Ursa Major appears like a big dipper. There are three bright stars in the handle and four stars in the bowl of the dipper as shown in below figure.
Ursa Major

(b) Orion appears like a hunter. Three bright stars appear in the belt, while five bright stars are arranged in the form of a quadrilateral as shown in the below figure.
Ursa Minor

11. Name two objects other than planets which are members of the solar system.

Answer

Asteroids and Meteors are objects other than planets which are members of the solar system.

Page No: 237

12.  Explain how you can locate the Pole Star with the help of Ursa Major.

Answer

The pole star can be located using the ursa major constellation, by imagining a line towards the Northern direction connecting two stars presnt at the end of the bowl, This imaginary line meets Pole Star. The length of the imaginary line from the bowl is about five times the distance between the two stars of the bowl.
Location of Pole star witht he help of Ursa Major

13. Do all the stars in the sky move? Explain.

Answer

No, Stars do not move they actually appear to move from east to west due to rotation of earth on its axis from west to east.

14. Why is the distance between stars expressed in light years? What do you understand by the statement that a star is eight light years away from the Earth?

Answer

The distance of the stars from the Earth and the distance between the stars are very large. It is inconvenient to express these distances in kilometer (km). Thus, these large distances are expressed in light years. One light year is the distance travelled by light in one year. One light year is equal to 9.46 x 1012km.
A star is located eight light years away from the Earth. This means that the distance between the star and the Earth is equivalent to the distance travelled by light in eight years, i.e., a star is located 8 x (9.46 x 1012) = 7.6 x 1013km away from the Earth.

15. The radius of Jupiter is 11 times the radius of the Earth. Calculate the ratio of the volumes of Jupiter and the Earth. How many Earths can Jupiter accommodate?

Answer

Earth and Jupiter can be considered as two spheres with radii R and R' respectively. Given that the radius of Jupiter is 11 times the radius of the Earth.
Thus, R' = 11 R


















16. Boojho made the following sketch (Fig. 17.29) of the solar system. Is the sketch correct? If not, correct it.

Answer

No, the sketch is not correct as the planet because he has interchanged the positions of Mars and Venus and also the positions of Uranus and Neptune. Also, he has shown the Asteroid belt in the gap between the orbits of Jupiter and Saturn which is not correct. The asteroid belt is located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. The correct fig is given below.


NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 18 Pollution of Air and Water Science

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NCERT Solutions for Class 8th: Ch 18 Pollution of Air and Water Science

Page No: 252

Excercise

1. What are the different ways in which water gets contaminated?

Answer

Water gets contaminated by the addition of:
→ Agricultural chemicals: Farmers use excessive amounts of pesticides and fertilizers to increase crop production. These chemicals get carried away to the water bodies due to rains and floods which lead to water pollution.
→ Industrial wastes: Industries release harmful chemical wastes into water sources, thereby polluting them.
→ Sewage wastes: Waste materials from kitchens, toilets, and laundry sources are also responsible for contaminating water.

2. At an individual level, how can you help reduce air pollution?

Answer

An individual can reduce air pollution by:
→ Avoiding the use of cars as much as possible and by using public transport whenever possible.
→ By not using vehicles for short distances.
→ By using clean fuels such as LPG and CNG instead of diesel and petrol.
→ Always disposing the garbage properly and not burning it.
→ Controlling the emissions from vehicles and household chimneys.

3. Clear, transparent water is always fit for drinking. Comment.

Answer

Clear and transparent water is not always fit for drinking. Water might appear clean, but it may contain some disease causing micro-organisms and other dissolved impurities. Hence, it is advised to purify water before drinking. Purification can be done by water purifying systems or by boiling the water.

4. You are a member of the municipal body of your town.
Make a list of measures that would help your town to ensure the supply of clean water to all its residents.

Answer

To ensure the supply of clean water to all residents the following steps must be taken:→ Leakges in pipelines of water should be repaired.
→ The main water source must be built in clean surroundings and should be maintained properly.
→ Open defection in water resources by slum dwellers should be strictly prohibited.
→ Chemical methods such as chlorination must be used for purifying water.

5. Explain the differences between pure air and polluted air.

Answer

Pure Air
Polluted air
Pure air contains around 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, and 0.03% carbon dioxide also small amounts of argon, methane, ozone, and water vapours.Polluted air includes gases like sulfur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, carbon dioxide, etc. and other particulate matter.
Smog is not present.Smog can be present.
Not harrmful for human beingsHarmful for human beings as cause diseases like asthma

6. Explain circumstances leading to acid rain. How does acid rain affect us?

Answer

When harmful gases like sulphur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide, react with moisture present in air, they form nitric acid and sulphuric acid. These acids when drop down on earth along with rain, is called acid rain.Effects of acid rain:
→ Acid rains damage crops, decrease fertility of soil and affect aquatic life.
→ Acid rains corrode buildings and structures.

7. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Methane
(d) Nitrogen
► (d) Nitrogen

Page No: 253

8. Describe the 'Greenhouse Effect' in your own words.

Answer

The greenhouse effect is the rise in the temprature of the Earth's surface due to increased concentration of greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapour in the atmosphere. These gases trap solar radiations released back by the Earth. This helps in keeping our planet warm and thus, helps in human survival. However, an increase in the amount of greenhouse gases can lead to an increase in the Earth's temperature leading to global warming.

9. Prepare a brief speech on global warming. You have to deliver the speech in your class.

Answer

Global warming is one of the greatest challenges that our planet is facing. It is the unequivocal and continuing rise in the average temperature of the Earth’s climate system. It occurs as a result of an increased concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.  These gases trap solar radiations released back by the Earth. This helps in keeping our planet warm and thus, helps in human survival. However, an increase in the amount of greenhouse gases can lead to an increase in the Earth's temperature leading to global warming.

10. Describe the threat to the beauty of the Taj Mahal.

Answer

Acid rain is a major threat to the beauty of the Taj Mahal. When acid rains fall on the monument made of marble, they react with marble to form a powder-like substance that is then washed away by the rain. This phenomenon is known as marble cancer. Also, the soot particles emitted from the Mathura oil refinery located near Agra is leading to the yellowing of the marble.

11. Why does the increased level of nutrients in the water affect the survival of aquatic organisms?

Answer

The increased in the level of nutrients in the water leads to an excessive increase in the population of algae in the water body. When these algae die, they serve as food for decomposers. A lot of oxygen is utilised in this process, consequently leading to a decrease in the level of oxygen dissolved in the water body. This in turn causes fishes and other aquatic organisms to die.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 1 Physical World Physics

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 1 Physical World Physics Science

Page No: 13

Excercises

1.1. Some of the most profound statements on the nature of science have come from Albert Einstein, one of the greatest scientists of all time. What do you think did Einstein mean when he said : “The most incomprehensible thing about the world is that it is comprehensible”?

Answer

The Physical world around us is full of different complex natural phenomena so the world is in-comprehensible. But with the help of study and observations it has been found that all these phenomena are based on some basic physical laws and so it is comprehensible.

1.2. "“Every great physical theory starts as a heresy and ends as a dogma"”. Give some examples from the history of science of the validity of this incisive remark.

Answer

The statement above is true. Validity of this incisive remark can be validated from the example of moment of inertia. It states that the moment of inertia of a body depends on its energy. But according to Einstein's mass-energy relation (E = mc2), energy depends on the speed of the body.

1.3. "“Politics is the art of the possible"”. Similarly, “"Science is the art of the soluble"”. Explain this beautiful aphorism on the nature and practice of science.

Answer

It is well known that to win over votes, politicians would make anything and everything possible even when they are least sure of the same. and in Science the various natural phenomena can be explained in terms of some basic laws. So as 'Politics is the art of possible' similarly 'Science is the art of the soluble'.

1.4. Though India now has a large base in science and technology, which is fast expanding, it is still a long way from realizing its potential of becoming a world leader in science. Name some important factors, which in your view have hindered the advancement of science in India.

Answer

Some important factors in our view which have hindered the advancement of science in India are:
→ Proper funds are not arranged for the development of research work and laboratories. The labs and scientific instruments are very old and outdated.
→ Most of the people in India are uneducated and highly traditional. They don't understand the importance of Science.
→ There is no proper employment opportunity for the science educated person in India.
→ There are no proper facilities for science education in schools and colleges in India.

1.5. No physicist has ever "“seen"” an electron. Yet, all physicists believe in the existence of electrons. An intelligent but superstitious man advances this analogy to argue that ‘ghosts’ exist even though no one has '‘seen'’ one. How will you refute his argument?

Answer

No physicist has ever seen an atom but there are practical evidences which prove the presence of electron. Their size is so small, even powerful microscopes find it difficult to measure their sizes. But still its effects could be tested
On the other end there is no phenomena which can be explained on the basis of existence of ghosts.
Our senses of sight and hearing are very limited to observe the existence of both.
So there is no comparison between the two given cases.

1.6. The shells of crabs found around a particular coastal location in Japan seem mostly to resemble the legendary face of a Samurai. Given below are two explanations of this observed fact. Which of these strikes you as a scientific explanation ?

(a) A tragic sea accident several centuries ago drowned a young Samurai. As a tribute to his bravery, nature through its inscrutable ways immortalized his face by imprinting it on the crab shells in that area.

(b) After the sea tragedy, fishermen in that area, in a gesture of honor to their dead hero, let free any crab shell caught by them which accidentally had a shape resembling the face of a Samurai. Consequently, the particular shape of the crab shell survived longer and therefore in course of time the shape was genetically propagated. This is an example of evolution by artificial selection.

[Note : This interesting illustration taken from Carl Sagan’s ‘The Cosmos’ highlights the fact that often strange and inexplicable facts which on the first sight appear ‘supernatural’ actually turn out to have simple scientific explanations. Try to think out other examples of this kind].

Answer

Explanation (b) is correct is a scientific explanation of the observed fact.

Page No: 14

1.7. The industrial revolution in England and Western Europe more than two centuries ago was triggered by some key scientific and technological advances. What were these advances ?

Answer

More than two centuries ago, England and Western Europe invented steam engine, electricity, theory of gravitation and the explosives. Steam engines helped them in the field of hat and thermodynamics, theory of gravitation in field of motion and making guns and cannons. These progresses brought about industrial revolution in England and Western Europe.

1.8. It is often said that the world is witnessing now a second industrial revolution, which will transform the society as radically as did the first. List some key contemporary areas of science and technology, which are responsible for this revolution.

Answer

Some of the key contemporary areas of science and technology which may transform the society radically are:
→ Development of super fast computers
→ Internet and tremendous advancement in information technology
→ Development in Biotechnology
→ Development of super-conducting materials at room temperature.
→ Dvelopment of robots.

1.10. Attempt to formulate your ‘moral’ views on the practice of science. Imagine yourself stumbling upon a discovery, which has great academic interest but is certain to have nothing but dangerous consequences for the human society. How, if at all, will you resolve your dilemma?

Answer

In our view a type of discovery which is of great academic interest but harmful for human society should not be made public because Science is for the society, society is not for science.

1.11. Science, like any knowledge, can be put to good or bad use, depending on the user.Given below are some of the applications of science. Formulate your views on whether the particular application is good, bad or something that cannot be so clearly categorized :

(a) Mass vaccination against small pox to curb and finally eradicate this disease from the population. (This has already been successfully done in India).
► Good

(b) Television for eradication of illiteracy and for mass communication of news and ideas.
► Good

(c) Prenatal sex determination
► Bad

(d) Computers for increase in work efficiency
► Good

(e) Putting artificial satellites into orbits around the Earth
► Good

(f ) Development of nuclear weapons
► Bad

(g) Development of new and powerful techniques of chemical and biological warfare).
► Bad

(h) Purification of water for drinking
► Good

(i) Plastic surgery
► Good

(j ) Cloning
► Good

(You can use your own prespective for answering above questions)

1.12. India has had a long and unbroken tradition of great scholarship — in mathematics, astronomy, linguistics, logic and ethics. Yet, in parallel with this, several superstitious and obscurantist attitudes and practices flourished in our society and unfortunately continue even today — among many educated people too. How will you use your knowledge of science to develop strategies to counter these attitudes ?

Answer

Poverty and illiteracy are the two major factors which make people superstitious in India. So to remove the superstitious and obscurantist attitude we have to first overcome these factors. Everybody should be educated, so that one can have scientific attitude. Knowledge of science can be put to use to prove people's superstitious wrong by showing them the scientific logic behind everything happening in our world.

1.13. Though the law gives women equal status in India, many people hold unscientific views on a woman’s innate nature, capacity and intelligence, and in practice give them a secondary status and role. Demolish this view using scientific arguments, and by quoting examples of great women in science and other spheres; and persuade yourself and others that, given equal opportunity, women are on par with men.

Answer

Some people in our society have the view that women do not have the innate nature, capacity and intelligence.
To demolish this view there are many examples of women who have proven their abilities in Science and other fields.
Madam Curie, Mother Teresa, Indira Gandhi, Marget Thatcher, Rani Laxmi Bai, Florence Nightingale are some examples. So in this era women are definitely not behind man in any field.

1.14. “It is more important to have beauty in the equations of physics than to have them agree with experiments”. The great British physicist P. A. M. Dirac held this view. Criticize this statement. Look out for some equations and results in this book which strike you as beautiful.

Answer

An equation which agrees with experiment must also be simple and hence beautiful. We have some simple and beautiful equations in Physics such as
→ E = mc2 (Energy of light)
→ E = hv (Energy of a photon)
→ KE = 1/2mv2(Kinetic energy of a moving particle)
→ PE = mgh (Potential energy of a body at rest)
→ W = F.d (Work done)
All have the same dimensions. One experiment shows dependency of energy on speed, the other shows dependency on frequency & displacement.
That's the beauty of equations in Physics coming from different experiments.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 2 Units and Measurements Physics

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 1 Units and Measurements Physics Science

Page No: 35

Excercises

2.1. Fill in the blanks
(a) The volume of a cube of side 1 cm is equal to.....m3
(b) The surface area of a solid cylinder of radius 2.0 cm and height 10.0 cm is equal to ... (mm)2
(c) A vehicle moving with a speed of 18 km h–1covers....m in 1 s
(d) The relative density of lead is 11.3. Its density is ....g cm–3or . ...kg m–3.

Answer

(a) Length of edge = 1cm = 1/100 m
Volume of the cube = side3
Putting the value of side, we get
Volume of the cube = (1/100 m)3




 The volume of a cube of side 1 cm is equal to 10-6 m3

(b) Given,
Radius, r = 2.0 cm = 20 mm (convert cm to mm)
Height, h = 10.0 cm =100 mm
The formula of total surface area of a cylinder S = 2πr (r + h)
Putting the values in this formula, we get
Surface area of a cylinder S = 2πr (r + h = 2 x 3.14 x 20 (20+100)
= 15072 = 1.5 × 104 mm2
The surface area of a solid cylinder of radius 2.0 cm and height 10.0 cm is equal to 1.5 × 104 mm2

(c) Using the conversion,
Given,
Time, t = 1 sec
speed = 18 km h-1 = 18 km / hour
1 km = 1000 m and 1hour = 3600 sec
Speed = 18 × 1000 /3600 sec = 5 m /sec
Use formula
Speed = distance / time
Cross multiply it, we get
Distance = Speed × Time = 5 × 1 = 5 m
A vehicle moving with a speed of 18 km h–1covers 5 m in 1 s.

(d) Density of lead = Relative density of lead × Density of water
Density of water = 1 g/cm3
Putting the values, we get
Density of lead = 11.3 × 1 g/ cm3
= 11.3 g cm-3
1 cm = (1/100 m) =10–2 m3
1 g = 1/1000 kg = 10-3 kg
Density of lead = 11.3 g cm-3 = 11.3
Putting the value of 1 cm and 1 gram
11.3 g/cm3 = 11.3 × 10-3 kg (10-2m)-3 = 11.3 ×10–3× 106 kg m-3 =1.13 × 103 kg m–3
The relative density of lead is 11.3. Its density is 11.3 g cm-3 g cm–3 or 1.13 × 103 kg m–3.

2.2. Fill in the blanks by suitable conversion of units:
(a) 1 kg m2s–2= ....g cm2s–2
(b) 1 m =..... ly
(c) 3.0 m s–2=.... km h–2
(d) G= 6.67 × 10–11N m2(kg)–2=.... (cm)3s–2g–1.

Answer

(a) 1 kg = 103 g
1 m2 = 104 cm2
1 kg m2 s–2 = 1 kg × 1 m2× 1 s–2
=103 g × 104 cm2 × 1 s–2 = 107 g cm2 s–2
1 kg m2s–2= 107 g cm2 s–2

(b) Distance = Speed × Time
Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s
Time = 1 year = 365 days = 365 × 24 hours = 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 sec
Putting these values in above formula we get
1 light year distance = (3 × 108 m/s) × (365 × 24 × 60 × 60 s) = 9.46 × 1015 m
9.46 × 1015 m = 1 ly
So that 1 m = 1/ 9.46 × 1015 ly = 1.06 × 10-16 ly

(c) 1 hour = 3600 sec so that 1 sec = 1/3600 hour
1 km = 1000 m so that 1 m = 1/1000 km
3.0 m s–2 = 3.0 (1/1000 km)( 1/3600 hour)-2 = 3.0 × 10–3 km × ((1/3600)-2 h–2)
= 3.0 × 10–3 km × (3600)2 h–2 = 3.88 × 104 km h–2
3.0 m s–2= 3.88 × 104 km h–2

(d) Given,
G= 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 (kg)–2
We know that
1 N = 1 kg m s2
1 kg = 103 g
1 m = 100 cm = 102 cm
Putting above values, we get
 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 kg–2 = 6.67 × 10–11× (1 kg m s–2) (1 m2) (1Kg–2)
Solve and cancel out the units we get
⇒ 6.67 × 10–11× (1 kg–1× 1 m3× 1 s–2)
Putting above values to convert Kg to g and m to cm
⇒ 6.67 × 10–11× (103 g)-1× (102 cm)3× (1 s–2)
⇒ 6.67 × 10–11× 10-3 g-1× 106 cm3× (1 s–2)
⇒ 6.67 × 10–8 cm3 s–2 g–1
G= 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 (kg)–2= 6.67 × 10–8 (cm)3s–2 g–1.

2.3. A calorie is a unit of heat or energy and it equals about 4.2 J where 1J = 1 kg m2s–2. Suppose we employ a system of units in which the unit of mass equals α kg, the unit of length equals β m, the unit of time is γ s. Show that a calorie has a magnitude 4.2 α–1β–2γ2 in terms of the new units.

Answer

Given that,
1 Calorie=4.2 J = 4.2 Kg m2 s-2               ...... (i)
As new unit of mass = α Kg
∴ 1 Kg = 1/α new unit of mass
Similarly, 1 m = β-1 new unit of length
                 1 s = γ-1 new unit of time
Putting these values in (i), we get
1 calorie = 4.2 (α-1 new unit of mass) (β-1 new unit of length)2 (γ-1 new unit of time)-2
               = 4.2 α-1β-2γ2 new unit of energy (Proved)

2.4. Explain this statement clearly:
“To call a dimensional quantity 'large' or 'small' is meaningless without specifying a standard for comparison”. In view of this, reframe the following statements wherever necessary:
(a) atoms are very small objects
(b) a jet plane moves with great speed
(c) the mass of Jupiter is very large
(d) the air inside this room contains a large number of molecules
(e) a proton is much more massive than an electron
(f) the speed of sound is much smaller than the speed of light.

Answer

The given statement is true because a dimensionless quantity may be large or small in comparision to some standard reference. For example, the coefficient of friction is dimensionless. The coefficient of sliding friction is greater than the coefficient of rolling friction, but less than static friction.
(a) An atom is a very small object in comparison to a soccer ball.
(b) A jet plane moves with a speed greater than that of a bicycle.
(c) Mass of Jupiter is very large as compared to the mass of a cricket ball.
(d) The air inside this room contains a large number of molecules as compared to that present in a geometry box.
(e) A proton is more massive than an electron.
(f) Speed of sound is less than the speed of light.

2.5. A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in vacuum is unity. What is the distance between the Sun and the Earth in terms of the new unit if light takes 8 min and 20 s to cover this distance?

Answer

Distance between the Sun and the Earth = Speed of light x Time taken by light to cover the distance
Given that in the new unit, speed of light = 1 unit
Time taken, t = 8 min 20 s = 500 s
∴Distance between the Sun and the Earth = 1 x 500 = 500 units

2.6. Which of the following is the most precise device for measuring length:
(a) a vernier callipers with 20 divisions on the sliding scale
(b) a screw gauge of pitch 1 mm and 100 divisions on the circular scale
(c) an optical instrument that can measure length to within a wavelength of light?

Answer

(a) Least count of this vernier callipers = 1SD - 1 VD  = 1 SD - 19/20 SD = 1/20 SD
                                                               = 1.20 mm = 1/200 cm = 0.005 cm

(b) Least count of screw gauge = Pitch/Number of divisions = 1/1000 = 0.001 cm.

(c) Wavelength of light, λ ≈ 10-5 cm = 0.00001 cm

Hence, it can be inferred that an optical instrument is the most suitable device to measure length.

2.7. A student measures the thickness of a human hair by looking at it through a microscope of magnification 100. He makes 20 observations and finds that the average width of the hair in the field of view of the microscope is 3.5 mm. What is the estimate on the thickness of hair?

Answer

Magnification of the microscope = 100
Average width of the hair in the field of view of the microscope = 3.5 mm
∴Actual thickness of the hair is 3.5/100 = 0.035 mm.

2.8. Answer the following:


(a) You are given a thread and a metre scale. How will you estimate the diameter of the thread?

Answer

Wrap the thread on a uniform smooth rod in such a way that the coils thus formed are very close to each other. Measure the length of the thread using a metre scale. The diameter of the thread is given by the relation,
Diameter = Length of thread/Number of turns

(b) A screw gauge has a pitch of 1.0 mm and 200 divisions on the circular scale. Do you think it is possible to increase the accuracy of the screw gauge arbitrarily by increasing the number of divisions on the circular scale?

Answer

It is not possible to increase the accuracy of a screw gauge by increasing the number of divisions of the circular scale. Increasing the number divisions of the circular scale will increase its accuracy to a certain extent only.

(c) The mean diameter of a thin brass rod is to be measured by vernier callipers. Why is a set of 100 measurements of the diameter expected to yield a more reliable estimate than a set of 5 measurements only?

Answer

A set of 100 measurements is more reliable than a set of 5 measurements because random errors involved in the former are very less as compared to the latter.

2.9. The photograph of a house occupies an area of 1.75 cm2on a 35 mm slide. The slide is projected on to a screen, and the area of the house on the screen is 1.55 m2. What is the linear magnification of the projector-screen arrangement?

Answer

Area of the house on the slide = 1.75 cm2
Area of the image of the house formed on the screen = 1.55 m= 1.55 × 104 cm2






2.10. State the number of significant figures in the following:


(a) 0.007 m2
► 1

(b) 2.64 x 1024 kg
► 3

(c) 0.2370 g cm-3
► 4

(d) 6.320 J
► 4

(e) 6.032 N m-2
► 4

(f) 0.0006032 m2
► 4

Page No: 36

2.11. The length, breadth and thickness of a rectangular sheet of metal are 4.234 m, 1.005 m, and 2.01 cm respectively. Give the area and volume of the sheet to correct significant figures.

Answer

Given that,
length, l = 4.234 m
breadth,b = 1.005 m
thickness, t = 2.01 cm = 2.01 × 10-2 m
Area of the sheet = 2 (l× 0 + b× t + t× l) = 2 (4.234 × 1.005 + 1.005 × 0.0201 + 0.0201 × 4.234)
                            = 2 (4.3604739) = 8.7209478 m2
As area can contain a maximum of three significant digits, therefore, rounding off, we get
Area = 8.72 m2
Also, volume = l× b× t
V = 4.234 × 1.005 × 0.0201 = 0.0855289 = 0.0855 m3       (Significant Figures = 3)

2.12. The mass of a box measured by a grocer's balance is 2.300 kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15 g and 20.17 g are added to the box. What is (a) the total mass of the box, (b) the difference in the masses of the pieces to correct significant figures?

Answer

Mass of grocer's box = 2.300 kg
Mass of gold piece I = 20.15g = 0.02015 kg
Mass of gold piece II = 20.17 g = 0.02017 kg

(a) Total mass of the box = 2.3 + 0.02015 + 0.02017 = 2.34032 kg
In addition, the final result should retain as many decimal places as there are in the number with the least decimal places. Hence, the total mass of the box is 2.3 kg.

(b) Difference in masses = 20.17 - 20.15 = 0.02 g
In subtraction, the final result should retain as many decimal places as there are in the number with the least decimal places.

2.13. A physical quantity P is related to four observables a, b, c and d as follows:




The percentage errors of measurement in a, b, c and d are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2%, respectively. What is the percentage error in the quantity P? If the value of P calculated using the above relation turns out to be 3.763, to what value should you round off the result?

Answer














Percentage error in P = 13 %
Value of P is given as 3.763.
By rounding off the given value to the first decimal place, we get P = 3.8.

2.14. A book with many printing errors contains four different formulas for the displacement y of a particle undergoing a certain periodic motion:










(a = maximum displacement of the particle, v = speed of the particle. T = time-period of motion). Rule out the wrong formulas on dimensional grounds.

Answer

The displacement y has the dimension of length, therefore, the formula for it should also have the dimension of length. Trigonometric functions are dimensionless and their arguments are also dimensionless. Based on these considerations now check each formula dimensionally.










The formulas in (ii) and (iii) are dimensionally wrong.

2.15. A famous relation in physics relates ‘moving mass’ m to the ‘rest mass’ m0 of a particle in terms of its speed v and the speed of light, c. (This relation first arose as a consequence of special relativity due to Albert Einstein). A boy recalls the relation almost correctly but forgets where to put the constant c. He writes :
m = m0 / (1-v2)1/2
Guess where to put the missing c.

Answer

Given the relation,
m = m/ (1-v2)1/2
Dimension of m = M1 L0 T0
Dimension of m0 = M1 L0 T0
Dimension of v = M0 L1 T–1
Dimension of v2 = M0 L2 T–2
Dimension of c = M0 L1 T–1
The given formula will be dimensionally correct only when the dimension of L.H.S is the same as that of R.H.S. This is only possible when the factor, (1-v2)1/2 is dimensionless i.e., (1 – v2) is dimensionless. This is only possible if v2 is divided by c2. Hence, the correct relation is
m = m0/ (1 - v2/c2)1/2

2.16. The unit of length convenient on the atomic scale is known as an angstrom and is denoted by Å: 1 Å = 10-10 m. The size of a hydrogen atom is about 0.5 Å. What is the total atomic volume in m3 of a mole of hydrogen atoms ?

Answer

Radius of hydrogen atom, r = 0.5 Å = 0.5 X 10-10 m
Volume of hydrogen atom = (4/3) π r3
= (4/3) X (22/7) X (0.5 X 10-10)3
= 0.524 X 10-30 m3
1 mole of hydrogen contains 6.023 × 1023 hydrogen atoms.
∴ Volume of 1 mole of hydrogen atoms = 6.023 × 1023× 0.524 × 10–30
= 3.16 × 10–7 m3

2.17. One mole of an ideal gas at standard temperature and pressure occupies 22.4 L (molar volume). What is the ratio of molar volume to the atomic volume of a mole of hydrogen ? (Take the size of hydrogen molecule to be about 1 Å). Why is this ratio so large ?

Answer

Radius of hydrogen atom, r = 0.5 Å = 0.5 X 10-10 m
Volume of hydrogen atom = (4/3) π r3
= (4/3) × (22/7) × (0.5 × 10-10)3
= 0.524 × 10-30 m3
Now, 1 mole of hydrogen contains 6.023 × 1023hydrogen atoms.
∴ Volume of 1 mole of hydrogen atoms, Va= 6.023 × 1023× 0.524 × 10–30
= 3.16 × 10–7 m3
Molar volume of 1 mole of hydrogen atoms at STP,
Vm = 22.4 L = 22.4 × 10–3m3




Hence, the molar volume is 7.08 × 104 times higher than the atomic volume. For this reason, the inter-atomic separation in hydrogen gas is much larger than the size of a hydrogen atom.

2.18. Explain this common observation clearly : If you look out of the window of a fast moving train, the nearby trees, houses etc. seem to move rapidly in a direction opposite to the train's motion, but the distant objects (hill tops, the Moon, the stars etc.) seem to be stationary. (In fact, since you are aware that you are moving, these distant objects seem to move with you).

Answer

Line of sight is defined as an imaginary line joining an object and an observer's eye. When we observe nearby stationary objects such as trees, houses, etc. while sitting in a moving train, they appear to move rapidly in the opposite direction because the line of sight changes very rapidly.
On the other hand, distant objects such as trees, stars, etc. appear stationary because of the large distance. As a result, the line of sight does not change its direction rapidly.

2.19. The principle of ‘parallax’ in section 2.3.1 is used in the determination of distances of very distant stars. The baseline AB is the line joining the Earth’s two locations six months apart in its orbit around the Sun. That is, the baseline is about the diameter of the Earth’s orbit ≈ 3 × 1011 m. However, even the nearest stars are so distant that with such a long baseline, they show parallax only of the order of 1" (second) of arc or so. A parsec is a convenient unit of length on the astronomical scale. It is the distance of an object that will show a parallax of 1" (second) of arc from opposite ends of a baseline equal to the distance from the Earth to the Sun. How much is a parsec in terms of meters?

Answer

Diameter of Earth’s orbit = 3 × 1011 m
Radius of Earth’s orbit, r = 1.5 × 1011 m
Let the distance parallax angle be 1" = 4.847 × 10–6 rad.
Let the distance of the star be D.
Parsec is defined as the distance at which the average radius of the Earth’s orbit subtends an angle of 1"







= 0.309 × 10-6≈ 3.09 × 1016 m
Hence, 1 parsec ≈ 3.09 × 1016 m

2.20. The nearest star to our solar system is 4.29 light years away. How much is this distance in terms of parsecs? How much parallax would this star (named Alpha Centauri) show when viewed from two locations of the Earth six months apart in its orbit around the Sun?

Answer

Distance of the star from the solar system = 4.29 ly
1 light year is the distance travelled by light in one year.
1 light year = Speed of light × 1 year
= 3 × 108× 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 = 94608 × 1011 m
∴ 4.29 ly = 405868.32 × 1011 m
∵ 1 parsec = 3.08 × 1016 m
∴ 4.29 ly = 405868.32 × 1011 / 3.08 × 1016  =  1.32 parsec
Using the relation,
θ = d / D
where,
Diameter of Earth's orbit, d = 3 × 1011 m
Distance of the star from the earth, D = 405868.32 × 1011 m
θ = 3 × 1011 / 405868.32 × 1011  =  7.39 × 10-6 rad
But, 1 sec = 4.85 × 10–6 rad
∴ 7.39 × 10-6 rad = 7.39 × 10-6 / 4.85 × 10-6 =  1.52"

2.21. Precise measurements of physical quantities are a need of science. For example, to ascertain the speed of an aircraft, one must have an accurate method to find its positions at closely separated instants of time. This was the actual motivation behind the discovery of radar in World War II. Think of different examples in modern science where precise measurements of length, time, mass etc. are needed. Also, wherever you can, give a quantitative idea of the precision needed.

Answer

It is indeed very true that precise measurements of physical quantities are essential for the development of science. For example, ultra-shot laser pulses (time interval ∼ 10–15 s) are used to measure time intervals in several physical and chemical processes.
X-ray spectroscopy is used to determine the inter-atomic separation or inter-planer spacing.

The development of mass spectrometer makes it possible to measure the mass of atoms precisely.

2.22.  Just as precise measurements are necessary in science, it is equally important to be able to make rough estimates of quantities using rudimentary ideas and common observations. Think of ways by which you can estimate the following (where an estimate is difficult to obtain, try to get an upper bound on the quantity):
(a) the total mass of rain-bearing clouds over India during the Monsoon
(b) the mass of an elephant
(c) the wind speed during a storm
(d) the number of strands of hair on your head
(e) the number of air molecules in your classroom.

Answer

(a) During monsoons, a Metrologist records about 215 cm of rainfall in India i.e., the height of water column, h = 215 cm = 2.15 m
Area of country, A = 3.3 × 1012 m2
Hence, volume of rain water, V = A× h = 7.09 × 1012 m3
Density of water, ρ = 1 × 103 kg m–3
Hence, mass of rain water = ρ× V = 7.09 × 1015 kg
Hence, the total mass of rain-bearing clouds over India is approximately 7.09 × 1015 kg.

(b) Consider a ship of known base area floating in the sea. Measure its depth in sea (say d1).
Volume of water displaced by the ship, Vb = Ad1
Now, move an elephant on the ship and measure the depth of the ship (d2) in this case.
Volume of water displaced by the ship with the elephant on board, Vbe= Ad2
Volume of water displaced by the elephant = Ad2Ad1
Density of water = D
Mass of elephant = AD (d2d1)

(c) Wind speed during a storm can be measured by an anemometer. As wind blows, it rotates. The rotation made by the anemometer in one second gives the value of wind speed.

(d) Area of the head surface carrying hair = A
With the help of a screw gauge, the diameter and hence, the radius of a hair can be determined. Let it be r.
∴Area of one hair = πr2
Number of strands of hair ≈ Total surface area / Area of one hair = A / πr2

 (e) Let the volume of the room be V.
One mole of air at NTP occupies 22.4 l i.e., 22.4 × 10–3m3 volume.
Number of molecules in one mole = 6.023 × 1023
∴Number of molecules in room of volume V
= 6.023 × 1023 × V / 22.4 × 10-3  =  134.915 × 1026 V  =  1.35 × 1028 V

2.23. The Sun is a hot plasma (ionized matter) with its inner core at a temperature exceeding 107 K, and its outer surface at a temperature of about 6000 K. At these high temperatures, no substance remains in a solid or liquid phase. In what range do you expect the mass density of the Sun to be, in the range of densities of solids and liquids or gases ? Check if your guess is correct from the following data : mass of the Sun = 2.0 × 1030 kg, radius of the Sun = 7.0 × 108 m.

Answer

Mass of the Sun, M = 2.0 × 1030 kg
Radius of the Sun, R = 7.0 × 108 m
Density, ρ = ?







The density of the Sun is in the density range of solids and liquids. This high density is attributed to the intense gravitational attraction of the inner layers on the outer layer of the Sun.

2.24. When the planet Jupiter is at a distance of 824.7 million kilometers from the Earth, its angular diameter is measured to be 35.72" of arc. Calculate the diameter of Jupiter.

Answer

Distance of Jupiter from the Earth, D = 824.7 × 106 km = 824.7 × 109 m
Angular diameter = 35.72" = 35.72 × 4.874 × 10-6 rad
Diameter of Jupiter = d
Using the relation,
θ = d/ D
d = θ D = 824.7 × 109 × 35.72 × 4.872 × 10-6
= 143520.76 × 103 m = 1.435 × 105 Km

Additional Excercises

2.25. A man walking briskly in rain with speed v must slant his umbrella forward making an angle θ with the vertical. A student derives the following relation between θ and v : tan θ = v and checks that the relation has a correct limit: as v → 0, θ → 0, as expected. (We are assuming there is no strong wind and that the rain falls vertically for a stationary man). Do you think this relation can be correct ? If not, guess the correct relation.

Answer

Incorrect; on dimensional ground
The relation is tan θ = ν
Dimension of R.H.S = M0 L1 T–1
Dimension of L.H.S = M0 L0 T0
(∵ The trigonometric function is considered to be a dimensionless quantity)
Dimension of R.H.S is not equal to the dimension of L.H.S. Hence, the given relation is not correct dimensionally.
To make the given relation correct, the R.H.S should also be dimensionless. One way to achieve this is by dividing the R.H.S by the speed of rainfall ν'
Therefore, the relation reduces to
tan θ = ν / ν'
This relation is dimensionally correct.

2.26. It is claimed that two cesium clocks, if allowed to run for 100 years, free from any disturbance, may differ by only about 0.02 s. What does this imply for the accuracy of the standard cesium clock in measuring a time-interval of 1 s?

Answer

Error in 100 years = 0.02 s







Hence, the accuracy of a standard caesium clock in measuring a time interval of 1 s is 10-12 s.

2.27. Estimate the average mass density of a sodium atom assuming its size to be about 2.5 Å. (Use the known values of Avogadro’s number and the atomic mass of sodium). Compare it with the density of sodium in its crystalline phase : 970 kg m-3. Are the two densities of the same order of magnitude ? If so, why ?

Answer

Diameter of sodium atom = Size of sodium atom = 2.5 Å
Radius of sodium atom, r = (1/2) × 2.5 Å = 1.25 Å = 1.25 × 10-10 m
Volume of sodium atom, V = (4/3) π r3
= (4/3) × 3.14 × (1.25 × 10-10)3 = VSodium
According to the Avogadro hypothesis, one mole of sodium contains 6.023 × 1023 atoms and has a mass of 23 g or 23 × 10–3kg.
∴ Mass of one atom = 23 × 10-3/ 6.023 × 1023  Kg = m1
Density of sodium atom, ρ= m1 / VSodium
Substituting the value from above, we get
Density of sodium atom, ρ=4.67 × 10-3 Kg m-3
It is given that the density of sodium in crystalline phase is 970 kg m–3.

Hence, the density of sodium atom and the density of sodium in its crystalline phase are not in the same order. This is because in solid phase, atoms are closely packed. Thus, the inter-atomic separation is very small in the crystalline phase.

2.28. The unit of length convenient on the nuclear scale is a Fermi : 1 f = 10-15 m. Nuclear sizes obey roughly the following empirical relation :
r = r0 A1/3
where r is the radius of the nucleus, A its mass number, and r0 is a constant equal to about, 1.2 f. Show that the rule implies that nuclear mass density is nearly constant for different nuclei. Estimate the mass density of sodium nucleus. Compare it with the average mass density of a sodium atom obtained in Exercise. 2.27.

Answer

Radius of nucleus r is given by the relation,
r = r0 A1/3
r0 = 1.2 f = 1.2 × 10-15 m
Volume of nucleus, V= (4 / 3) π r3
(/ 3) π (rA1/3)3(/ 3) π rA    ..... (i)

Now, the mass of a nuclei M is equal to its mass number i.e.,
M = A amu = A× 1.66 × 10–27kg
Density of nucleus, ρ = Mass of nucleus / Volume of nucleus
= A X 1.66 × 10-27 / (4/3) π r03 A

= 3 X 1.66 × 10-27 / 4 π r03  Kg m-3
his relation shows that nuclear mass depends only on constant r0. Hence, the nuclear mass densities of all nuclei are nearly the same.
Density of sodium nucleus is given by,
ρSodium = 3 × 1.66 × 10-27 / 4 × 3.14 × (1.2 × 10-15)3
= 4.98 × 1018 / 21.71 = 2.29 × 1017 Kg m-3

2.29. A LASER is a source of very intense, monochromatic, and unidirectional beam of light. These properties of a laser light can be exploited to measure long distances. The distance of the Moon from the Earth has been already determined very precisely using a laser as a source of light. A laser light beamed at the Moon takes 2.56 s to return after reflection at the Moon's surface. How much is the radius of the lunar orbit around the Earth?

Answer

Time taken by the laser beam to return to Earth after reflection from the Moon = 2.56 s
Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s
Time taken by the laser beam to reach Moon  = 1 / 2 × 2.56 = 1.28 s
Radius of the lunar orbit = Distance between the Earth and the Moon = 1.28 × 3 × 108 = 3.84 × 108 m = 3.84 × 105 km

2.30. A SONAR (sound navigation and ranging) uses ultrasonic waves to detect and locate objects under water. In a submarine equipped with a SONAR the time delay between generation of a probe wave and the reception of its echo after reflection from an enemy submarine is found to be 77.0 s. What is the distance of the enemy submarine?
(Speed of sound in water = 1450 m s-1).

Answer

Let the distance between the ship and the enemy submarine be ‘S’.
Speed of sound in water = 1450 m/s
Time lag between transmission and reception of Sonar waves = 77 s
In this time lag, sound waves travel a distance which is twice the distance between the ship and the submarine (2S).
Time taken for the sound to reach the submarine = 1/2 × 77 = 38.5 s
∴ Distance between the ship and the submarine (S) = 1450 × 38.5 = 55825 m = 55.8 km

2.31. The farthest objects in our Universe discovered by modern astronomers are so distant that light emitted by them takes billions of years to reach the Earth. These objects (known as quasars) have many puzzling features, which have not yet been satisfactorily explained. What is the distance in km of a quasar from which light takes 3.0 billion years to reach us ?

Answer

Time taken by quasar light to reach Earth = 3 billion years
= 3 × 109 years
= 3 × 109× 365 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s
Distance between the Earth and quasar
= (3 × 108) × (3 × 109× 365 × 24 × 60 × 60)
= 283824 × 1020 m
= 2.8 × 1022 km

2.32. It is a well known fact that during a total solar eclipse the disk of the moon almost completely covers the disk of the Sun. From this fact and from the information you can gather from examples 2.3 and 2.4, determine the approximate diameter of the moon.

Answer

The position of the Sun, Moon, and Earth during a lunar eclipse is shown in the given figure.
Position of sun moon during lunar eclipse

Distance of the Moon from the Earth = 3.84 × 108 m
Distance of the Sun from the Earth = 1.496 × 1011 m
Diameter of the Sun = 1.39 × 109 m

It can be observed that ΔTRS and ΔTPQ are similar. Hence, it can be written as:
PQ / RS = VT / UT
1.39 x 109 / RS = 1.496 × 1011/ 3.84 × 108
RS = (1.39 × 3.84 / 1.496) × 106 = 3.57 × 106 m
Hence, the diameter of the Moon is 3.57 × 106 m.

2.33. A great physicist of this century (P.A.M. Dirac) loved playing with numerical values of Fundamental constants of nature. This led him to an interesting observation. Dirac found that from the basic constants of atomic physics (c, e, mass of electron, mass of proton) and the gravitational constant G, he could arrive at a number with the dimension of time. Further, it was a very large number, its magnitude being close to the present estimate on the age of the universe (~15 billion years). From the table of fundamental constants in this book, try to see if you too can construct this number (or any other interesting number you can think of). If its coincidence with the age of the universe were significant, what would this imply for the constancy of fundamental constants?

Answer

One relation consists of some fundamental constants that give the age of the Universe by:

t = (e2/4πε0)2 × (1 / mpmec3G)

Where,
t = Age of Universe
e = Charge of electrons = 1.6 ×10–19 C
ε0 = Absolute permittivity
mp = Mass of protons = 1.67 × 10–27 kg
me = Mass of electrons = 9.1 × 10–31 kg
c = Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s
G = Universal gravitational constant = 6.67 × 1011 Nm2 kg–2
Also, 1 / 4πε0 = 9 × 109 Nm2/C2
Substituting these values in the equation, we get
t = (1.6 × 10-19)4 × (× 109)2 / (9.1 × 10-31)2 × 1.67 × 10-27 × (× 108)3 × 6.67 × 10-11             
=  [ (1.6)× 81 / 9.1 × 1.67 × 27 × 6.67 ] × 10-76+18-62+27-24+11 seconds
= [(1.6)4 × 81 / 9.1 × 1.67 × 27 × 6.67 × 365 × 24 × 3600 ] × 10-76+18+62+27-24+11 years
≈  6 X 10-9 × 1018 years
= 6 billion years.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 3 Motion In A Straight Line Physics

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 3 Motion In A Straight Line Physics Science

Page No: 55

Excercises

3.1. In which of the following examples of motion, can the body be considered approximately a point object:
(a) a railway carriage moving without jerks between two stations.
(b) a monkey sitting on top of a man cycling smoothly on a circular track.
(c) a spinning cricket ball that turns sharply on hitting the ground.
(d) a tumbling beaker that has slipped off the edge of a table.

Answer

(a) The size of a carriage is very small as compared to the distance between two stations. Therefore, the carriage can be treated as a point sized object.

(b) The size of a monkey is very small as compared to the size of a circular track. Therefore, the monkey can be considered as a point sized object on the track.

(c) The size of a spinning cricket ball is comparable to the distance through which it turns sharply on hitting the ground. Hence, the cricket ball cannot be considered as a point object.

(d) The size of a beaker is comparable to the height of the table from which it slipped. Hence, the beaker cannot be considered as a point object.

3.2. The position-time (x-t) graphs for two children A and B returning from their school O to their homes P and Q respectively are shown in Fig. 3.19. Choose the correct entries in the brackets below;
(a) (A/B) lives closer to the school than (B/A)
(b) (A/B) starts from the school earlier than (B/A)
(c) (A/B) walks faster than (B/A)
(d) A and B reach home at the (same/different) time
(e) (A/B) overtakes (B/A) on the road (once/twice).

Answer

(a) As OP < OQ, A lives closer to the school than B.

(b) For x = 0, t = 0 for A; while t has some finite value for B. Therefore, A starts from the school earlier than B.

(c) Since the velocity is equal to slope of x-t graph in case of uniform motion and slope of x-t graph for B is greater that that for A =, hence B walks faster than A.

(d) It is clear from the given graph that both A and B reach their respective homes at the same time.

(e) B moves later than A and his/her speed is greater than that of A. From the graph, it is clear that B overtakes A only once on the road.

Page No: 56

3.3. A woman starts from her home at 9.00 am, walks with a speed of 5 km h-1 on a straight road up to her office 2.5 km away, stays at the office up to 5.00 pm, and returns home by an auto with a speed of 25 km h-1. Choose suitable scales and plot the x-t graph of her motion.

Answer

Speed of the woman = 5 km/h
Distance between her office and home = 2.5 km
Time taken = Distance / Speed
= 2.5 / 5 = 0.5 h = 30 min
It is given that she covers the same distance in the evening by an auto.
Now, speed of the auto = 25 km/h
Time taken = Distance / Speed
= 2.5 / 25 = 1 / 10 = 0.1 h = 6 min
The suitable x-t graph of the motion of the woman is shown in the given figure.

3.4. A drunkard walking in a narrow lane takes 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, followed again by 5 steps forward and 3 steps backward, and so on. Each step is 1 m long and requires 1 s. Plot the x-t graph of his motion. Determine graphically and otherwise how long the drunkard takes to fall in a pit 13 m away from the start.

Answer

Distance covered with 1 step = 1 m
Time taken = 1 s
Time taken to move first 5 m forward = 5 s
Time taken to move 3 m backward = 3 s
Net distance covered = 5 – 3 = 2 m
Net time taken to cover 2 m = 8 s
Drunkard covers 2 m in 8 s.
Drunkard covered 4 m in 16 s.
Drunkard covered 6 m in 24 s.
Drunkard covered 8 m in 32 s.
In the next 5 s, the drunkard will cover a distance of 5 m and a total distance of 13 m and falls into the pit.
Net time taken by the drunkard to cover 13 m = 32 + 5 = 37 s

The x-t graph of the drunkard’s motion can be shown as:

3.5. A jet airplane travelling at the speed of 500 km h-1 ejects its products of combustion at the speed of 1500 km h-1 relative to the jet plane. What is the speed of the latter with respect to an observer on the ground ?

Answer

Speed of the jet airplane, vjet = 500 km/h
Relative speed of its products of combustion with respect to the plane,
vsmoke = – 1500 km/h
Speed of its products of combustion with respect to the ground = vsmoke
Relative speed of its products of combustion with respect to the airplane,
vsmoke = vsmokevjet
– 1500 = vsmoke– 500
vsmoke = – 1000 km/h
The negative sign indicates that the direction of its products of combustion is opposite to the direction of motion of the jet airplane.

3.6. A car moving along a straight highway with speed of 126 km h-1 is brought to a stop within a distance of 200 m. What is the retardation of the car (assumed uniform), and how long does it take for the car to stop ?

Answer

Initial velocity of the car, u = 126 km/h = 35 m/s
Final velocity of the car, v = 0
Distance covered by the car before coming to rest, s = 200 m
Retardation produced in the car = a
From third equation of motion, a can be calculated as:
v2 - u2 = 2as
(0)2 - (35)2 = 2 × a × 200
a = - 35 × 35 / 2 × 200 = - 3.06 ms-2
From first equation of motion, time (t) taken by the car to stop can be obtained as:
v = u + at
t = (v - u) / a = (- 35) / (-3.06) = 11.44 s

3.7. Two trains A and B of length 400 m each are moving on two parallel tracks with a uniform speed of 72 km h-1 in the same direction, with A ahead of B. The driver of B decides to overtake A and accelerates by 1 m s-2. If after 50 s, the guard of B just brushes past the driver of A, what was the original distance between them ?

Answer

For train A:
Initial velocity, u = 72 km/h = 20 m/s
Time, t = 50 s
Acceleration, aI = 0 (Since it is moving with a uniform velocity)
From second equation of motion, distance (sI)covered by train A can be obtained as:
s = ut + (1/2)a1t2
= 20 × 50 + 0 = 1000 m

For train B:
Initial velocity, u = 72 km/h = 20 m/s
Acceleration, a = 1 m/s2
Time, t = 50 s
From second equation of motion, distance (sII) covered by train A can be obtained as:
sII = ut + (1/2)at2
= 20 X 50 + (1/2) × 1 × (50)2 = 2250 m
Length of both trains = 2 × 400 m = 800 m

Hence, the original distance between the driver of train A and the guard of train B is 2250 - 1000 - 800 = 450m.

3.8. On a two-lane road, car A is travelling with a speed of 36 km h-1. Two cars B and C approach car A in opposite directions with a speed of 54 km h-1 each. At a certain instant, when the distance AB is equal to AC, both being 1 km, B decides to overtake A before C does. What minimum acceleration of car B is required to avoid an accident ?

Answer

Velocity of car A, vA= 36 km/h = 10 m/s
Velocity of car B, vB= 54 km/h = 15 m/s
Velocity of car C, vC= 54 km/h = 15 m/s
Relative velocity of car B with respect to car A,
vBA = vBvA
= 15 – 10 = 5 m/s
Relative velocity of car C with respect to car A,
vCA = vC – (– vA)
= 15 + 10 = 25 m/s
At a certain instance, both cars B and C are at the same distance from car A i.e.,
s = 1 km = 1000 m
Time taken (t) by car C to cover 1000 m = 1000 / 25 = 40 s
Hence, to avoid an accident, car B must cover the same distance in a maximum of 40 s.
From second equation of motion, minimum acceleration (a) produced by car B can be obtained as:
s = ut + (1/2)at2
1000 = 5 × 40 + (1/2) × a × (40)2
a = 1600 / 1600 = 1 ms-2

3.9. Two towns A and B are connected by a regular bus service with a bus leaving in either direction every T minutes. A man cycling with a speed of 20 km h-1 in the direction A to B notices that a bus goes past him every 18 min in the direction of his motion, and every 6 min in the opposite direction. What is the period T of the bus service and with what speed (assumed constant) do the buses ply on the road?

Answer

Let V be the speed of the bus running between towns A and B.
Speed of the cyclist, v= 20 km/h
Relative speed of the bus moving in the direction of the cyclist
= Vv= (V– 20) km/h
The bus went past the cyclist every 18 min i.e., 18 / 60 h (when he moves in the direction of the bus).
Distance covered by the bus = (V - 20) × 18 / 60 km    .... (i)
Since one bus leaves after every T minutes, the distance travelled by the bus will be equal to
V × T / 60    ....(ii)
Both equations (i) and (ii) are equal.
(V - 20) × 18 / 60 = VT / 60     ......(iii)
Relative speed of the bus moving in the opposite direction of the cyclist
= (V + 20) km/h
Time taken by the bus to go past the cyclist = 6 min = 6 / 60 h
∴ (V + 20) × 6 / 60 = VT / 60    ....(iv)
From equations (iii) and (iv), we get
(V + 20) × 6 / 60 = (V - 20) × 18 / 60
V + 20 = 3V - 60
2V = 80
V = 40 km/h
Substituting the value of V in equation (iv), we get
(40 + 20) × 6 / 60 = 40T / 60
T = 360 / 40 = 9 min

3.10. A player throws a ball upwards with an initial speed of 29.4 m s-1.
(a) What is the direction of acceleration during the upward motion of the ball ?
(b) What are the velocity and acceleration of the ball at the highest point of its motion ?
(c) Choose the x = 0 m and t = 0 s to be the location and time of the ball at its highest point, vertically downward direction to be the positive direction of x-axis, and give the signs of position, velocity and acceleration of the ball during its upward, and downward motion.
(d) To what height does the ball rise and after how long does the ball return to the player’s hands ? (Take g = 9.8 m s-2 and neglect air resistance).

Answer

(a)Irrespective of the direction of the motion of the ball, acceleration (which is actually acceleration due to gravity) always acts in the downward direction towards the centre of the Earth.

(b)At maximum height, velocity of the ball becomes zero. Acceleration due to gravity at a given place is constant and acts on the ball at all points (including the highest point) with a constant value i.e., 9.8 m/s2.

(c) During upward motion, the sign of position is positive, sign of velocity is negative, and sign of acceleration is positive. During downward motion, the signs of position, velocity, and acceleration are all positive.

(d)Initial velocity of the ball, u = 29.4 m/s
Final velocity of the ball, v = 0 (At maximum height, the velocity of the ball becomes zero)
Acceleration, a = – g = – 9.8 m/s2
From third equation of motion, height (s) can be calculated as:
v2 - u2 = 2gs
s = (v2 - u2) / 2g
= ((0)2 - (29.4)2) / 2 × (-9.8) = 3 s
Time of ascent = Time of descent
Hence, the total time taken by the ball to return to the player’s hands = 3 + 3 = 6 s.

Page No: 57

3.11. Read each statement below carefully and state with reasons and examples, if it is true or false; A particle in one-dimensional motion
(a) with zero speed at an instant may have non-zero acceleration at that instant
(b) with zero speed may have non-zero velocity,
(c) with constant speed must have zero acceleration,
(d) with positive value of acceleration mustbe speeding up.

Answer

(a) True, when an object is thrown vertically up in the air, its speed becomes zero at maximum height. However, it has acceleration equal to the acceleration due to gravity (g) that acts in the downward direction at that point.

(b) Speed is the magnitude of velocity. When speed is zero, the magnitude of velocity along with the velocity is zero.

(c) A car moving on a straight highway with constant speed will have constant velocity. Since acceleration is defined as the rate of change of velocity, acceleration of the car is also zero.

(d) This statement is false in the situation when acceleration is positive and velocity is negative at the instant time taken as origin. Then, for all the time before velocity becomes zero, there is slowing down of the particle. Such a case happens when a particle is projected upwards.
This statement is true when both velocity and acceleration are positive, at the instant time taken as origin. Such a case happens when a particle is moving with positive acceleration or falling vertically downwards from a height.

3.12. A ball is dropped from a height of 90 m on a floor. At each collision with the floor, the ball loses one tenth of its speed. Plot the speed-time graph of its motion between t = 0 to 12 s.

Answer

Ball is dropped from a height, s = 90 m
Initial velocity of the ball, u = 0
Acceleration, a = g = 9.8 m/s2
Final velocity of the ball = v
From second equation of motion, time (t) taken by the ball to hit the ground can be obtained as:
s = ut + (1/2)at2
90 = 0 + (1/2) × 9.8 t2

t = √18.38  = 4.29 s
From first equation of motion, final velocity is given as:
v = u + at
= 0 + 9.8 × 4.29 = 42.04 m/s
Rebound velocity of the ball, ur = 9v / 10 = 9 × 42.04 / 10 = 37.84 m/s
Time (t) taken by the ball to reach maximum height is obtained with the help of first equation of motion as:
v = ur+ at
0 = 37.84 + (– 9.8) t
t′ = -37.84 / -9.8 = 3.86 s
Total time taken by the ball = t + t′ = 4.29 + 3.86 = 8.15 s
As the time of ascent is equal to the time of descent, the ball takes 3.86 s to strike back on the floor for the second time.
The velocity with which the ball rebounds from the floor = 9 × 37.84 / 10 = 34.05 m/s
Total time taken by the ball for second rebound = 8.15 + 3.86 = 12.01 s

The speed-time graph of the ball is represented in the given figure as:

3.13. Explain clearly, with examples, the distinction between:
(a) magnitude of displacement (sometimes called distance) over an interval of time, and the total length of path covered by a particle over the same interval;
(b) magnitude of average velocity over an interval of time, and the average speed over the same interval. [Average speed of a particle over an interval of time is defined as the total path length divided by the time interval]. Show in both (a) and (b) that the second quantity is either greater than or equal to the first.
When is the equality sign true? [For simplicity, consider one-dimensional motion only].

Answer

(a) The magnitude of displacement over an interval of time is the shortest distance (which is a straight line) between the initial and final positions of the particle.
The total path length of a particle is the actual path length covered by the particle in a given interval of time.
For example, suppose a particle moves from point A to point B and then, comes back to a point, C taking a total time t, as shown below. Then, the magnitude of displacement of the particle = AC.
Whereas, total path length = AB + BC
It is also important to note that the magnitude of displacement can never be greater than the total path length. However, in some cases, both quantities are equal to each other.

(b) Magnitude of average velocity = Magnitude of displacement / Time interval
For the given particle,
Average velocity = AC / t
Average speed = Total path length / Time interval
= (AB + BC) / t
Since (AB + BC) > AC, average speed is greater than the magnitude of average velocity. The two quantities will be equal if the particle continues to move along a straight line.

3.14. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 km away with a speed of 5 km h-1. Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 km h-1. What is the
(a) magnitude of average velocity, and
(b) average speed of the man over the interval of time (i) 0 to 30 min, (ii) 0 to 50 min, (iii) 0 to 40 min ? [Note: You will appreciate from this exercise why it is better to define average speed as total path length divided by time, and not as magnitude of average velocity. You would not like to tell the tired man on his return home that his average speed was zero !]

Answer

Time taken by the man to reach the market from home,t1 = 2.5 / 5 = 1/2 h = 30 min
Time taken by the man to reach home from the market, t2 = 2.5 / 7.5 = 1/3 h = 20 min
Total time taken in the whole journey = 30 + 20 = 50 min

(i) 0 to 30 min
Average velocity = Displacement / Time = 2.5 / (1/2) = 5 km/h
Average speed = Distance / Time = 2.5 / (1/2) = 5 km/h

(ii) 0 to 50 min
Time = 50 min = 50/60 = 5/6 h
Net displacement = 0
Total distance = 2.5 + 2.5 = 5 km
Average velocity = Displacement / Time = 0
Average speed = Distance / Time = 5/(5/6) = 6 km/h

(iii) 0 to 40 min
Speed of the man = 7.5 km/h
Distance travelled in first 30 min = 2.5 km
Distance travelled by the man (from market to home) in the next 10 min
= 7.5 × 10/60 = 1.25 km
Net displacement = 2.5 – 1.25 = 1.25 km
Total distance travelled = 2.5 + 1.25 = 3.75 km
Average velocity = Displacement / Time = 1.25 / (40/60) = 1.875 km/h
Average speed = Distance / Time = 3.75 / (40/60) = 5.625 km/h

3.15. In Exercises 3.13 and 3.14, we have carefully distinguished between average speed and magnitude of average velocity. No such distinction is necessary when we consider instantaneous speed and magnitude of velocity. The instantaneous speed is always equal to the magnitude of instantaneous velocity. Why?

Answer

Instantaneous velocity is given by the first derivative of distance with respect to time i.e. ,
vIn = dx / dt
Here, the time interval dt is so small that it is assumed that the particle does not change its direction of motion. As a result, both the total path length and magnitude of displacement become equal is this interval of time.
Therefore, instantaneous speed is always equal to instantaneous velocity.

3.16. Look at the graphs (a) to (d) (Fig. 3.20) carefully and state, with reasons, which of these cannot possibly represent one-dimensional motion of a particle.

Answer

(a) The given x-t graph, shown in (a), does not represent one-dimensional motion of the particle. This is because a particle cannot have two positions at the same instant of time.

(b) The given v-t graph, shown in (b), does not represent one-dimensional motion of the particle. This is because a particle can never have two values of velocity at the same instant of time.

(c) The given v-t graph, shown in (c), does not represent one-dimensional motion of the particle. This is because speed being a scalar quantity cannot be negative.

(d) The given v-t graph, shown in (d), does not represent one-dimensional motion of the particle. This is because the total path length travelled by the particle cannot decrease with time.

Page No: 58

3.17. Figure 3.21 shows the x-t plot of one-dimensional motion of a particle. Is it correct to say from the graph that the particle moves in a straight line for t < 0 and on a parabolic path for t > 0? If not, suggest a suitable physical context for this graph.

Answer

No, because the x-t graph does not represent the trajectory of the path followed by a particles. From the graph, it is noted that at t=0, x=0.

3.18. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30 km h-1 fires a bullet at a thief’s car speeding away
in the same direction with a speed of 192 km h-1. If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 150 m s-1, with what speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car ? (Note: Obtain that speed which is relevant for damaging the thief’s car).

Answer

Speed of the police van, vp= 30 km/h = 8.33 m/s
Muzzle speed of the bullet, vb= 150 m/s
Speed of the thief’s car, vt= 192 km/h = 53.33 m/s
Since the bullet is fired from a moving van, its resultant speed can be obtained as:
= 150 + 8.33 = 158.33 m/s
Since both the vehicles are moving in the same direction, the velocity with which the bullet hits the thief’s car can be obtained as:
vbt= vbvt
= 158.33 – 53.33 = 105 m/s

3.19. Suggest a suitable physical situation for each of the following graphs (Fig 3.22):

Answer

(a) The given x-t graph shows that initially a body was at rest. Then, its velocity increases with time and attains an instantaneous constant value. The velocity then reduces to zero with an increase in time. Then, its velocity increases with time in the opposite direction and acquires a constant value. A similar physical situation arises when a football (initially kept at rest) is kicked and gets rebound from a rigid wall so that its speed gets reduced. Then, it passes from the player who has kicked it and ultimately gets stopped after sometime.

(b) In the given v-t graph, the sign of velocity changes and its magnitude decreases with a passage of time. A similar situation arises when a ball is dropped on the hard floor from a height. It strikes the floor with some velocity and upon rebound, its velocity decreases by a factor. This continues till the velocity of the ball eventually becomes zero.


(c) The given a-t graph reveals that initially the body is moving with a certain uniform velocity. Its acceleration increases for a short interval of time, which again drops to zero. This indicates that the body again starts moving with the same constant velocity. A similar physical situation arises when a hammer moving with a uniform velocity strikes a nail.

3.20. Figure 3.23 gives the x-t plot of a particle executing one-dimensional simple harmonic motion. (You will learn about this motion in more detail in Chapter14). Give the signs of position, velocity and acceleration variables of the particle at t = 0.3 s, 1.2 s, - 1.2 s.

Answer

Negative, Negative, Positive (at t = 0.3 s)
Positive, Positive, Negative (at t = 1.2 s)
Negative, Positive, Positive (at t = –1.2 s)
For simple harmonic motion (SHM) of a particle, acceleration (a) is given by the relation:
a = – ω2xω → angular frequency … (i)
t = 0.3 s
In this time interval, x is negative. Thus, the slope of the x-t plot will also be negative. Therefore, both position and velocity are negative. However, using equation (i), acceleration of the particle will be positive.
t = 1.2 s
In this time interval, x is positive. Thus, the slope of the x-t plot will also be positive. Therefore, both position and velocity are positive. However, using equation (i), acceleration of the particle comes to be negative.
t = – 1.2 s
In this time interval, x is negative. Thus, the slope of the x-t plot will also be negative. Since both xand t are negative, the velocity comes to be positive. From equation (i), it can be inferred that the acceleration of the particle will be positive.

3.21. Figure 3.24 gives the x-t plot of a particle in one-dimensional motion. Three different equal intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average speed greatest, and in which is it the least? Give the sign of average velocity for each interval.

Answer

Interval 3 (Greatest), Interval 2 (Least)
Positive (Intervals 1 & 2), Negative (Interval 3)
The average speed of a particle shown in the x-t graph is obtained from the slope of the graph in a particular interval of time.
It is clear from the graph that the slope is maximum and minimum restively in intervals 3 and 2 respectively. Therefore, the average speed of the particle is the greatest in interval 3 and is the least in interval 2. The sign of average velocity is positive in both intervals 1 and 2 as the slope is positive in these intervals. However, it is negative in interval 3 because the slope is negative in this interval.

Page No: 59

3.22. Figure 3.25 gives a speed-time graph of a particle in motion along a constant direction. Three equal intervals of time are shown. In which interval is the average acceleration greatest in magnitude ? In which interval is the average speed greatest ? Choosing the positive direction as the constant direction of motion, give the signs of v and a in the three intervals. What are the accelerations at the points A, B, C and D?

Answer

Average acceleration is greatest in interval 2
Average speed is greatest in interval 3
v is positive in intervals 1, 2, and 3
a is positive in intervals 1 and 3 and negative in interval 2
a = 0 at A, B, C, D
Acceleration is given by the slope of the speed-time graph. In the given case, it is given by the slope of the speed-time graph within the given interval of time.
Since the slope of the given speed-time graph is maximum in interval 2, average acceleration will be the greatest in this interval.
Height of the curve from the time-axis gives the average speed of the particle. It is clear that the height is the greatest in interval 3. Hence, average speed of the particle is the greatest in interval 3.

In interval 1:
The slope of the speed-time graph is positive. Hence, acceleration is positive. Similarly, the speed of the particle is positive in this interval.

In interval 2:
The slope of the speed-time graph is negative. Hence, acceleration is negative in this interval. However, speed is positive because it is a scalar quantity.

In interval 3:
The slope of the speed-time graph is zero. Hence, acceleration is zero in this interval. However, here the particle acquires some uniform speed. It is positive in this interval.

Points A, B, C, and D are all parallel to the time-axis. Hence, the slope is zero at these points. Therefore, at points A, B, C, and D, acceleration of the particle is zero.

Additional Excercises

3.23. A three-wheeler starts from rest, accelerates uniformly with 1 m s-2 on a straight road for 10 s, and then moves with uniform velocity. Plot the distance covered by the vehicle during the nth second (n = 1,2,3….) versus n. What do you expect this plot to be during accelerated motion : a straight line or a parabola ?

Answer

Straight line
Distance covered by a body in nth second is given by the relation
Dn = u + a (2n - 1) / 2     ....(i)
Where,
u = Initial velocity
a = Acceleration
n = Time = 1, 2, 3, ..... ,n
In the given case,
u = 0 and a = 1 m/s2
∴ Dn = (2n - 1) / 2     ..... (ii)
This relation shows that:
Dnn … (iii)

Now, substituting different values of n in equation (iii), we get the following table:

n
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
Dn
0.5
1.5
2.5
3.5
4.5
5.5
6.5
7.5
8.5
9.5

The plot between n and Dn will be a straight line shown in below figure:

3.24. A boy standing on a stationary lift (open from above) throws a ball upwards with the maximum initial speed he can, equal to 49 m s-1. How much time does the ball take to return to his hands? If the lift starts moving up with a uniform speed of 5 m s-1 and the boy again throws the ball up with the maximum speed he can, how long does the ball take to return to his hands ?

Answer

Initial velocity of the ball, u = 49 m/s
Acceleration, a= – g = – 9.8 m/s2

Case I:
When the lift was stationary, the boy throws the ball.
Taking upward motion of the ball,
Final velocity, vof the ball becomes zero at the highest point.
From first equation of motion, time of ascent (t) is given as:
v = u +at
t = (v - u) / a
= -49 / -9.8 = 5 s
But, the time of ascent is equal to the time of descent.
Hence, the total time taken by the ball to return to the boy’s hand = 5 + 5 = 10 s.

Case II:
The lift was moving up with a uniform velocity of 5 m/s. In this case, the relative velocity of the ball with respect to the boy remains the same i.e., 49 m/s. Therefore, in this case also, the ball will return back to the boy’s hand after 10 s.

3.25. On a long horizontally moving belt (Fig. 3.26), a child runs to and fro with a speed 9 km h-1 (with respect to the belt) between his father and mother located 50 m apart on the moving belt. The belt moves with a speed of 4 km h-1. For an observer on a stationary platform outside, what is the
(a) speed of the child running in the direction of motion of the belt ?.
(b) speed of the child running opposite to the direction of motion of the belt ?
(c) time taken by the child in (a) and (b) ?
Which of the answers alter if motion is viewed by one of the parents ?

Answer

(a)Speed of the belt, vB = 4 km/h
Speed of the boy, vb = 9 km/h
Since the boy is running in the same direction of the motion of the belt, his speed (as observed by the stationary observer) can be obtained as:
vbB= vb + vB = 9 + 4 = 13 km/h

(b)Since the boy is running in the direction opposite to the direction of the motion of the belt, his speed (as observed by the stationary observer) can be obtained as:
vbB= vb + (– vB) = 9 – 4 = 5 km/h

(c) Distance between the child’s parents = 50 m
As both parents are standing on the moving belt, the speed of the child in either direction as observed by the parents will remain the same i.e., 9 km/h = 2.5 m/s.
Hence, the time taken by the child to move towards one of his parents is 50 / 2.5 = 20 s

(d)If the motion is viewed by any one of the parents, answers obtained in (a) and (b) get altered. This is because the child and his parents are standing on the same belt and hence, are equally affected by the motion of the belt. Therefore, for both parents (irrespective of the direction of motion) the speed of the child remains the same i.e., 9 km/h.
For this reason, it can be concluded that the time taken by the child to reach any one of his parents remains unaltered.

3.26. Two stones are thrown up simultaneously from the edge of a cliff 200 m high with initial speeds of 15 m s-1 and 30 m s-1. Verify that the graph shown in Fig. 3.27 correctly represents the time variation of the relative position of the second stone with respect to the first. Neglect air resistance and assume that the stones do not rebound after hitting the ground. Take g = 10 m s-2. Give the equations for the linear and curved parts of the plot.
Answer

For first stone:
Initial velocity, uI = 15 m/s
Acceleration, a = –g = – 10 m/s2

Using the relation,
x1 = x0 + u1t + (1/2)at2
Where, height of the cliff, x0 = 200 m
x1 = 200 + 15t - 5t2      ......(i)
When this stone hits the ground, x1 = 0
∴– 5t2 + 15t + 200 = 0
t2– 3t– 40 = 0
t2– 8t + 5t– 40 = 0
t (t – 8) + 5 (t– 8) = 0
t = 8 s or t = – 5 s
Since the stone was projected at time t = 0, the negative sign before time is meaningless.
t = 8 s
For second stone:
Initial velocity,uII = 30 m/s
Acceleration, a= – g = – 10 m/s2

Using the relation,
x2 = x0 + uIIt + (1/2)at2
= 200 + 30t - 5t2........(ii)
At the moment when this stone hits the ground; x2 = 0
– 5t2+ 30 t + 200 = 0
t2– 6t– 40 = 0
t2– 10t + 4t + 40 = 0
t (t– 10) + 4 (t– 10) = 0
t(t – 10) (t + 4) = 0
t = 10 s or t= – 4 s
Here again, the negative sign is meaningless.
∴ t = 10 s
Subtracting equations (i) and (ii), we get
x2 - x1 = (200 + 30t -5t2) - (200 + 15t -5t2)
x2 - x1 =15t     ....... (iii)
Equation (iii) represents the linear path of both stones. Due to this linear relation between (x2 x1) and t, the path remains a straight line till 8 s.
Maximum separation between the two stones is at t = 8 s.
(x2x1)max = 15× 8 = 120 m
This is in accordance with the given graph.
After 8 s, only second stone is in motion whose variation with time is given by the quadratic equation:
x2x1 = 200 + 30t– 5t2
Hence, the equation of linear and curved path is given by
x2 x1 = 15t (Linear path)
x2­– x1 = 200 + 30t– 5t2 (Curved path)

Page No: 60

3.27. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a fixed direction is shown in Fig. 3.28. Obtain the distance traversed by the particle between (a) t = 0 s to 10 s, (b) t = 2 s to 6 s.What is the average speed of the particle over the intervals in (a) and (b) ?

Answer

(a) Distance travelled by the particle = Area under the given graph
= (1/2) X (10 - 0) X (12 - 0) = 60 m
Average speed = Distance / Time = 60 / 10 = 6 m/s

(b)Let s1 and s2 be the distances covered by the particle between time
t = 2 s to 5 s and t = 5 s to 6 s respectively.
Total distance (s) covered by the particle in time t = 2 s to 6 s
s = s1 + s2… (i)

For distance s1:
Let u′ be the velocity of the particle after 2 s and a′ be the acceleration of the particle in t = 0 to t = 5 s.
Since the particle undergoes uniform acceleration in the interval t = 0 to t = 5 s, from first equation of motion, acceleration can be obtained as:
v = u + at
Where,
v = Final velocity of the particle
12 = 0 + a′ × 5
a′ = 12 / 5 = 2.4 ms-2
Again, from first equation of motion, we have
v = u + at
= 0 + 2.4 × 2 = 4.8 m/s
Distance travelled by the particle between time 2 s and 5 s i.e., in 3 s
s1 = u' t + (1/2)a' t2
= 4.8 X 3 + (1/2) X 2.4 X (3)2
= 25.2 m      ........(ii)

For distance s2:
Let a″ be the acceleration of the particle between time t = 5 s and t = 10 s.
From first equation of motion,
v = u + at (where v = 0 as the particle finally comes to rest)
0 = 12 + a″ × 5
a″ = -12 / 5 = - 2.4 ms-2
Distance travelled by the particle in 1s (i.e., between t = 5 s and t = 6 s)
s2 = u" t + (1/2)a″ t2
= 12 X 1 + (1/2) (-2.4) X (1)2
= 12 - 1.2 = 10.8 m    .........(iii)

From equations (i), (ii), and (iii), we get
s = 25.2 + 10.8 = 36 m
∴ Average speed = 36 / 4 = 9 m/s

3.28. The velocity-time graph of a particle in one-dimensional motion is shown in Fig. 3.29 :
Which of the following formulae are correct for describing the motion of the particle over the time-interval t1 to t2 :
(a) x(t2 ) = x(t1) + v (t1) (t2– t1) +(½) a (t2– t1)2
(b) v(t2 ) = v(t1) + a (t2– t1)
(c) vaverage = (x(t2) – x(t1))/(t2– t1)
(d) aaverage = (v(t2) – v(t1))/(t2– t1)
(e) x(t2 ) = x(t1) + vaverage (t2– t1) + (½) aaverage (t2– t1)2
(f) x(t2 ) – x(t1) = area under the v-t curve bounded by the t-axis and the dotted line shown.

Answer

The correct formulae describing the motion of the particle are (c), (d) and, (f)
The given graph has a non-uniform slope. Hence, the formulae given in (a), (b), and (e) cannot describe the motion of the particle. Only relations given in (c), (d), and (f) are correct equations of motion.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 4 Motion In A Plane Physics

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 4 Motion In A Plane Physics Science

Page No: 85

Excercises

4.1. State, for each of the following physical quantities, if it is a scalar or a vector:
volume, mass, speed, acceleration, density, number of moles, velocity, angular frequency, displacement, angular velocity.

Answer

Scalar: Volume, mass, speed, density, number of moles, angular frequency
Vector: Acceleration, velocity, displacement, angular velocity

4.2. Pick out the two scalar quantities in the following list:
force, angular momentum, work, current, linear momentum, electric field, average velocity, magnetic moment, relative velocity.

Answer

Work and current are scalar quantities.

4.3. Pick out the only vector quantity in the following list:
Temperature, pressure, impulse, time, power, total path length, energy, gravitational potential, coefficient of friction, charge.

Answer

Since, Impulse = change in momentum = force × time. As momentum and force are vector quantities, hence impulse is a vector quantity.

4.4. State with reasons, whether the following algebraic operations with scalar and vector physical quantities are meaningful:
(a) adding any two scalars, (b) adding a scalar to a vector of the same dimensions, (c) multiplying any vector by any scalar, (d) multiplying any two scalars, (e) adding any two vectors, (f) adding acomponent of a vector to the same vector.

Answer

(a) Yes, addition of two scalar quantities is meaningful only if they both represent the same physical quantity.

(b) No, addition of a vector quantity with a scalar quantity is not meaningful.

(c) Yes, scalar can be multiplied with a vector. For example, force is multiplied with time to give impulse.

(d) Yes, scalar, irrespective of the physical quantity it represents, can be multiplied with another scalar having the same or different dimensions.

(e) Yes, addition of two vector quantities is meaningful only if they both represent the same physical quantity.

(f) Yes, component of a vector can be added to the same vector as they both have the same dimensions.

4.5. Read each statement below carefully and state with reasons, if it is true or false:
(a) The magnitude of a vector is always a scalar, 
(b) each component of a vector is always a scalar, 
(c) the total path length is always equal to the magnitude of the displacement vector of a particle. 
(d) the average speed of a particle (defined as total path length divided by the time taken to cover the path) is either greater or equal to the magnitude of average velocity of the particle over the same interval of time, 
(e) Three vectors not lying in a plane can never add up to give a null vector.

Answer

(a) True; because magnitude is a pure number.

(b) False, each component of a vector is also a vector.

(c) True, only if the particle moves along a straight line in the same direction, if not then it is false.

(d) True, because the total path length is either greater than or equal to the magnitude of the displacement vector.

(e) True, as they can not be represented by the three sides of a triangle taken in the same order.

4.6. Establish the following vector inequalities geometrically or otherwise:
(a) |a + b| ≤ |a| + |b|
(b) |a + b| ≥ ||a| − |b||
(c) |a b| ≤ |a| + |b|
(d) |a b| ≥ ||a| − |b||
When does the equality sign above apply?

Answer

(a) Let two vectors a and b be represented by the adjacent sides of a parallelogram OMNP, as shown in the given figure.
Here, we can write:
OM = | a |   ...(i)
MN = OP = | b | ....(ii)
ON = | a + b |   .....(iii)
In a triangle, each side is smaller than the sum of the other two sides.
Therefore, in ΔOMN, we have:
ON < (OM + MN)
| a + b | < | a | + | b |   ....(iv)
If the two vectors a and b act along a straight line in the same direction, then we can write:
| a + b | = | a | + | b |   ..... (v)
Combining equations (iv) and (v), we get:
| a + b | ≤ | a | + | b |

(b) Let two vectors a and b be represented by the adjacent sides of a parallelogram OMNP, as shown in the given figure.
Here, we have:
| OM | = | a |
| MN | = | OP | = | b |
| ON | = | a + b |
In a triangle, each side is smaller than the sum of the other two sides.
Therefore, in ΔOMN, we have:
ON + MN > OM
ON + OM > MN
| ON | > | OM - OP |   (∵ OP = MN)
| a + b | > | | a | - | b | |      ....(iv)
If the two vectors a and b act along a straight line in the same direction, then we can write:
| a + b | = | | a | - | b | |     .....(v)
Combining equations (iv) and (v), we get:
| a + b | | | a | - | b | |

(c) Let two vectors a and b be represented by the adjacent sides of a parallelogram PORS, as shown in the given figure.

Here we have:
| OR | = | PS | = | b |    ...(i)
| OP | = | a |    ....(ii)
In a triangle, each side is smaller than the sum of the other two sides. Therefore, in ΔOPS, we have:
OS < OP + PS
| a - b | < | a | + | -b |
| a - b | < | a | + | b |   ... (iii)
If the two vectors act in a straight line but in opposite directions, then we can write:
| a - b | = | a | + | b |   ... (iv)
Combining equations (iii) and (iv), we get:
| a - b | | a | + | b |

(d) Let two vectors a and b be represented by the adjacent sides of a parallelogram PORS, as shown in the given figure.

The following relations can be written for the given parallelogram.
OS + PS > OP    .....(i)
OS > OP - PS   ....(ii)
| a - b | > | a | - | b |    ....(iii)
The quantity on the LHS is always positive and that on the RHS can be positive or negative. To make both quantities positive, we take modulus on both sides as:
| | a - b | | > | | a | - | b | |
| a - b | > | | a | - | b | |    ....(iv)
If the two vectors act in a straight line but in the opposite directions, then we can write:
| a - b | = | | a | - | b | |     ....(v)
Combining equations (iv) and (v), we get:
| a - b | | | a | - | b | | 

Page No: 86

4.7. Given vectors a + b + c + d = 0, which of the following statements are correct:
(a) Vectors a, b, c, and d must each be a null vector,
(b) The magnitude of vectors (a + c) equals the magnitude of vectors(b+ d),
(c) The magnitude of a can never be greater than the sum of the magnitudes of b, c, and d,
(d) Vectors b + c must lie in the plane of a and d if  a and d are not collinear, and in the line of a and d, if they are collinear?

Answer

In order to make vectors a + b + c + d = 0, it is not necessary to have all the four given vectors to be null vectors. There are many other combinations which can give the sum zero.

(b) Correct
a + b + c + d = 0
a + c = – (b + d)
Taking modulus on both the sides, we get:
| a + c | = | –(b + d)| = | b + d |
Hence, the magnitude of (a + c) is the same as the magnitude of (b + d).

(c) Correct
a + b + c + d = 0
a = - (b + c + d)
Taking modulus both sides, we get:
| a | = | b + c + d |
| a |  ≤  | a | + | b | + | c |  .... (i)

Equation (i) shows that the magnitude of a is equal to or less than the sum of the magnitudes of b, c, and d.
Hence, the magnitude of vector a can never be greater than the sum of the magnitudes of b, c, and d.

(d) Correct
For a + b + c + d = 0
a + (b + c) + d = 0
The resultant sum of the three vectors a, (b + c), and dcan be zero only if (b + c) lie in a plane containing aand d, assuming that these three vectors are represented by the three sides of a triangle.

If aand d are collinear, then it implies that the vector (b + c) is in the line of a and d. This implication holds only then the vector sum of all the vectors will be zero.

4.8. Three girls skating on a circular ice ground of radius 200 m start from a point Pon the edge of the ground and reach a point Qdiametrically opposite to Pfollowing different paths as shown in Fig. 4.20. What is the magnitude of the displacement vector for each? For which girl is this equal to the actual length of the path skated?

Answer

Displacement is given by the minimum distance between the initial and final positions of a particle. In the given case, all the girls start from point P and reach point Q. The magnitudes of their displacements will be equal to the diameter of the ground.
Radius of the ground = 200 m
Diameter of the ground = 2 x 200 = 400 m
Hence, the magnitude of the displacement for each girl is 400 m. This is equal to the actual length of the path skated by girl B.

4.9. A cyclist starts from the centre Oof a circular park of radius 1 km, reaches the edge Pof the park, then cycles along the circumference, and returns to the centre along QO as shown in Fig. 4.21. If the round trip takes 10 min, what is the (a) net displacement, (b) average velocity, and (c) average speed of the cyclist?

Answer

(a) Displacement is given by the minimum distance between the initial and final positions of a body. In the given case, the cyclist comes to the starting point after cycling for 10 minutes. Hence, his net displacement is zero.

(b) Average velocity is given by the relation:
Average velocity = Net Displacement / Total time
Since the net displacement of the cyclist is zero, his average velocity will also be zero.

(c) Average speed of the cyclist is given by the relation:
Average speed = Total path length / Total time
Total path length = OP + PQ + QO
= 1 + (1 (2π X 1) /) + 1
= 2 + (π / 2)
= 3.570 km
Time taken = 10 min = 10 / 60 = 1 / 6 h
∴ Average speed = 3.570 / (1/6) = 21.42 km/h

4.10. On an open ground, a motorist follows a track that turns to his left by an angle of 60° after every 500 m. Starting from a given turn, specify the displacement of the motorist at the third, sixth and eighth turn. Compare the magnitude of the displacement with the total path length covered by the motorist in each case.

Answer

The path followed by the motorist is a regular hexagon with side 500 m, as shown in the given figure

Let the motorist start from point P.
The motorist takes the third turn at S.
∴Magnitude of displacement = PS = PV + VS = 500 + 500 = 1000 m
Total path length = PQ + QR + RS = 500 + 500 +500 = 1500 m
The motorist takes the sixth turn at point P, which is the starting point.
∴Magnitude of displacement = 0
Total path length = PQ + QR + RS + ST + TU + UP
= 500 + 500 + 500 + 500 + 500 + 500 = 3000 m
The motorist takes the eight turn at point R
∴Magnitude of displacement = PR













Therefore, the magnitude of displacement is 866.03 m at an angle of 30° with PR.
It means AC makes an angle 30° with the intial direction. Total path length = 8 × 500 = 4000 m.

4.11. A passenger arriving in a new town wishes to go from the station to a hotel located 10 km away on a straight road from the station. A dishonest cabman takes him along a circuitous path 23 km long and reaches the hotel in 28 min. What is (a) the average speed of the taxi, (b) the magnitude of average velocity? Are the two equal?

Answer


(a) Total distance travelled = 23 km
Total time taken = 28 min = 28 / 60 h
∴  Average speed of the taxi = Total disttance travelled / Total time taken
= 23 / (28/60) = 49.29 km/h

(b) Distance between the hotel and the station = 10 km = Displacement of the car
∴ Average velocity = 10 / (28/60) = 21.43 km/h
Therefore, the two physical quantities (averge speed and average velocity) are not equal.

4.12. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 30 m s-1. A woman rides a bicycle with a speed of 10 m s-1 in the north to south direction. What is the direction in which she should hold her umbrella ?

Answer

The described situation is shown in the given figure.
 Here,
vc= Velocity of the cyclist
vr= Velocity of falling rain

In order to protect herself from the rain, the woman must hold her umbrella in the direction of the relative velocity (v) of the rain with respect to the woman.
v = vr + (-vc)
= 30 + (-10) = 20 m/s
tan θ = vc / vr = 10 / 30
θ = tan-1 (1 / 3)
= tan-1 (0.333) ≈ 180

Hence, the woman must hold the umbrella toward the south, at an angle of nearly 18° with the vertical.

4.13. A man can swim with a speed of 4.0 km/h in still water. How long does he take to cross a river 1.0 km wide if the river flows steadily at 3.0 km/h and he makes his strokes normal to the river current? How far down the river does he go when he reaches the other bank?

Answer

Speed of the man, vm= 4 km/h
Width of the river = 1 km
Time taken to cross the river = Width of the river / Speed of the river
= 1/4 h = 1 × 60 / 4 = 15 min
Speed of the river, vr= 3 km/h
Distance covered with flow of the river = vr× t
= 3 × 1 / 4 = 3 / 4 km
= 3 × 1000 / 4
= 750 m

Page No: 87

4.14. In a harbor, wind is blowing at the speed of 72 km/h and the flag on the mast of a boat anchored in the harbor flutters along the N-E direction. If the boat starts moving at a speed of 51 km/h to the north, what is the direction of the flag on the mast of the boat ?

Answer

The flag is fluttering in the north-east direction. It shows that the wind is blowing toward the north-east direction. When the ship begins sailing toward the north, the flag will move along the direction of the relative velocity (vwb) of the wind with respect to the boat.

The angle between vwand (–vb) = 90° + 45°
tan β = 51 Sin (90 + 45) / (72 + 51 Cos (90 + 45)
Substituting and solving we get,
tan β = 51 / 50.80 = 1.0038
β = tan-1 (1.0038) = 45.110
Angle with respect to the east direction = 45.11° – 45° = 0.11°
Hence, the flag will flutter almost due east.

4.15. The ceiling of a long hall is 25 m high. What is the maximum horizontal distance that a ball thrown with a speed of 40 m s-1 can go without hitting the ceiling of the hall ?

Answer

Maximum height, h = 25 m
In projectile motion, the maximum height reached by a body projected at an angle θ, is given by the relation:
h = u2 Sin2θ / 2g
25 = (40)2 Sin2θ / 2 × 9.8
sin2 θ = 0.30625
sin θ = 0.5534
θ = sin–1(0.5534) = 33.60°
Horizontal range, R = u2 Sin 2θ / g
= (40)2 × Sin (2 × 33.600) / 9.8
= 1600 × Sin (67.2) / 9.8
= 1600 × 0.922 / 9.8  =  150.53 m

4.16. A cricketer can throw a ball to a maximum horizontal distance of 100 m. How much high above the ground can the cricketer throw the same ball ?

Answer

Maximum horizontal distance,R = 100 m
The cricketer will only be able to throw the ball to the maximum horizontal distance when the angle of projection is 45°, i.e., θ= 45°.
The horizontal range for a projection velocity v, is given by the relation:
R = u2 Sin 2θ / g
100 = u2 Sin 900 / g
u2 / g = 100   ....(i)
The ball will achieve the maximum height when it is thrown vertically upward. For such motion, the final velocity vis zero at the maximum height H.
Acceleration, a = –g
Using the third equation of motion:
v2 - u2 = -2gH
H = u2 / 2g  =  100 / 2  =  50 m

4.17. A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in 25 s, what is the magnitude and direction of acceleration of the stone?

Answer

Length of the string, l = 80 cm = 0.8 m
Number of revolutions = 14
Time taken = 25 s
Frequency, v = Number of revolutions / Time taken  =  14 / 25 Hz
Angular frequency, ω = 2πν
= 2 × (22/7) × (14/25)  =  88 / 25 rad s-1
Centripetal acceleration, ac = ω2r
= (88/25)2 × 0.8
= 9.91 ms-2
The direction of centripetal acceleration is always directed along the string, toward the centre, at all points.

4.18. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop of radius 1.00 km with a steady speed of 900 km/h. Compare its centripetal acceleration with the acceleration due to gravity.

Answer

Radius of the loop, r= 1 km = 1000 m
Speed of the aircraft, v= 900 km/h = 900 × 5 / 18  =  250 m/s
Centripetal acceleration, ac = v2 / r
= (250)2 / 1000 = 62.5 ms-2
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2

ac / g = 62.5 / 9.8  =  6.38
ac = 6.38 g

4.19. Read each statement below carefully and state, with reasons, if it is true or false:
(a) The net acceleration of a particle in circular motion is always along the radius of the circle towards the centre
(b) The velocity vector of a particle at a point is always along the tangent to the path of the particle at that point
(c) The acceleration vector of a particle in uniform circular motion averaged over one cycle is a null vector

Answer

(a) False, the net acceleration of a particle is towards the centre only in case of a uniform circular motion.

(b) True, because while leaving the circular path, the particle moves tangentially to the circular path.

(c) True, The direction of acceleration vector in a uniform circular motion is directed towards the centre of circular path. It is constantly changing with time. The resultant of all these vectors will be zero vector.

4.20. The position of a particle is given by




where t is in seconds and the coefficients have the proper units for r to be in metres.
(a) Find the v and a of the particle? 
(b) What is the magnitude and direction of velocity of the particle at t = 2.0 s ?

Answer





































4.21. A particle starts from the origin at t = 0 s with a velocity of 10.0 ĵ m/s and moves in the x-y plane with a constant acceleration of (8.0 î+ 2.0 ĵ) m s-2. (a) At what time is the x- coordinate of the particle 16 m? What is the y-coordinate of the particle at that time?
(b) What is the speed of the particle at the time ?

Answer


































































4.22. î and ĵ are unit vectors along x and y axis respectively. What is the magnitude and direction of the vectors î + ĵ, and î − ĵ ? What are the components of a vector A= 2î + 3ĵ along the directions of î + ĵ and î − ĵ? [You may use graphical method]

Answer


























































































4.23. For any arbitrary motion in space, which of the following relations are true :
(a) vaverage = (1/2) (v (t1) + v (t2))
(b) vaverage = [ r(t2) - r(t1) ] / (t2– t1)
(c) v (t) = v (0) + a t
(d) r (t) = r (0) + v (0) t + (1/2) a t2
(e) aaverage = [ v (t2) - v (t1 ) ] / ( t2– t1)
(The ‘average’ stands for average of the quantity over the time interval t1 to t2)

Answer

(a) It is given that the motion of the particle is arbitrary. Therefore, the average velocity of the particle cannot be given by this equation.

(b) The arbitrary motion of the particle can be represented by this equation.

(c) The motion of the particle is arbitrary. The acceleration of the particle may also be non-uniform. Hence, this equation cannot represent the motion of the particle in space.

(d) The motion of the particle is arbitrary; acceleration of the particle may also be non-uniform. Hence, this equation cannot represent the motion of particle in space.

(e) The arbitrary motion of the particle can be represented by this equation.

4.24. Read each statement below carefully and state, with reasons and examples, if it is true or false :
A scalar quantity is one that
(a) is conserved in a process
(b) can never take negative values
(c) must be dimensionless
(d) does not vary from one point to another in space
(e) has the same value for observers with different orientations of axes.

Answer

(a) False
Despite being a scalar quantity, energy is not conserved in inelastic collisions.

(b) False
Despite being a scalar quantity, temperature can take negative values.

(c) False
Total path length is a scalar quantity. Yet it has the dimension of length.

(d) False
A scalar quantity such as gravitational potential can vary from one point to another in space.

(e) True
The value of a scalar does not vary for observers with different orientations of axes.

4.25. An aircraft is flying at a height of 3400 m above the ground. If the angle subtended at a ground observation point by the aircraft positions 10.0 s apart is 30°, what is the speed of the aircraft ?

Answer

The positions of the observer and the aircraft are shown in the given figure.

Height of the aircraft from ground, OR = 3400 m
Angle subtended between the positions, ∠POQ = 30°
Time = 10 s
In ΔPRO:
tan 150 = PR / OR
PR = OR tan 150
= 3400 X tan 150

ΔPRO is similar to ΔRQO.
∴PR = RQ
PQ = PR + RQ
= 2PR = 2 × 3400 tan 15°
= 6800 × 0.268 = 1822.4 m
∴ Speed of the aircraft = 1822.4 / 10 = 182.24 m/s

Page No: 88

4.26. A vector has magnitude and direction. Does it have a location in space ? Can it vary with time ? Will two equal vectors a and b at different locations in space necessarily have identical physical effects ? Give examples in support of your answer.

Answer

(i) A vector in general has no definite location in space because a vector remains unaffected whenever it is displaced anywhere in space provided its magnitude and direction do not change. However, a position vector has a definite location in space.

(ii) A vector can vary with time as example the velocity vector o an unaffected particle varies with time.

(iii) Two equal vectors at different locations in space do not necessarily have same physical effects. For example, two equal forces acting at two different points on a body which can cause the rotation of a body about an axis will not produce equal turning effect.

4.27. A vector has both magnitude and direction. Does it mean that anything that has magnitude and direction is necessarily a vector ? The rotation of a body can be specified by the direction of the axis of rotation, and the angle of rotation about the axis. Does that make any rotation a vector ?

Answer

No. A physical quantity having both magnitude and direction need not be considered a vector. For example, despite having magnitude and direction, current is a scalar quantity. The essential requirement for a physical quantity to be considered a vector is that it should follow the law of vector addition.
Generally speaking, the rotation of a body about an axis is not a vector quantity as it does not follow the law of vector addition. However, a rotation by a certain small angle follows the law of vector addition and is therefore considered a vector.

4.28. Can you associate vectors with (a) the length of a wire bent into a loop, (b) a plane area, (c) a sphere ? Explain.

Answer

(a) No, one cannot associate a vector with the length of a wire bent into a loop.

(b) Yes, one can associate an area vector with a plane area. The direction of this vector is normal, inward or outward to the plane area.

(c) No, one cannot associate a vector with the volume of a sphere. However, an area vector can be associated with the area of a sphere.

4.29. A bullet fired at an angle of 30° with the horizontal hits the ground 3.0 km away. By adjusting its angle of projection, can one hope to hit a target 5.0 km away? Assume the muzzle speed to the fixed, and neglect air resistance.

Answer

Range, R = 3 km
Angle of projection, θ= 30°
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.8 m/s2
Horizontal range for the projection velocity u0, is given by the relation:
R = u02 Sin 2θ /g
3 = u02 Sin 600/ g
u02/ g = 2√3      .......(i)
The maximum range (Rmax) is achieved by the bullet when it is fired at an angle of 45° with the horizontal, that is,
Rmax = u02 / g    ....(ii)

On comparing equations (i) and (ii), we get:

Rmax = 3√3
= 2 X 1.732 = 3.46 km
Hence, the bullet will not hit a target 5 km away.

4.30. A fighter plane flying horizontally at an altitude of 1.5 km with speed 720 km/h passes directly overhead an anti-aircraft gun. At what angle from the vertical should the gun be fired for the shell with muzzle speed 600 m s-1 to hit the plane ? At what minimum altitude should the pilot fly the plane to avoid being hit ? (Take g = 10 m s-2 ).

Answer

Height of the fighter plane = 1.5 km = 1500 m
Speed of the fighter plane, v = 720 km/h = 200 m/s
Let θ be the angle with the vertical so that the shell hits the plane. The situation is shown in the given figure.

Muzzle velocity of the gun, u = 600 m/s
Time taken by the shell to hit the plane = t
Horizontal distance travelled by the shell = uxt
Distance travelled by the plane = vt
The shell hits the plane. Hence, these two distances must be equal.
uxt = vt
u Sin θ = v
Sin θ = v / u
= 200 / 600 = 1/3 = 0.33
θ = Sin-1(0.33) = 19.50

In order to avoid being hit by the shell, the pilot must fly the plane at an altitude (H) higher than the maximum height achieved by the shell.
∴ H = u2Sin2 (90 - θ) / 2g
= (600)2Cos2θ / 2g
= 360000 X Cos2 19.5 / 2 X 10
= 16006.482 m
≈ 16 km

4.31. A cyclist is riding with a speed of 27 km/h. As he approaches a circular turn on the road of radius 80 m, he applies brakes and reduces his speed at the constant rate of 0.50 m/s every second. What is the magnitude and direction of the net acceleration of the cyclist on the circular turn ?

Answer

0.86 m/s2; 54.46° with the direction of velocity
Speed of the cyclist, v = 27 km/h = 7.5 m/s
Radius of the circular turn, r = 80 m
Centripetal acceleration is given as:
ac = v2 / r
= (7.5)2 / 80 = 0.7 ms-2

The situation is shown in the given figure:
Suppose the cyclist begins cycling from point P and moves toward point Q. At point Q, he applies the breaks and decelerates the speed of the bicycle by 0.5 m/s2.
This acceleration is along the tangent at Q and opposite to the direction of motion of the cyclist.
Since the angle between ac and aT is 900, the resultant acceleration a is given by:
a = (ac2 + aT2)1/2
= ( (0.7)2 + (0.5)2)1/2
= (0.74)1/2 = 0.86 ms-2
tan θ = ac / aT
where θ is the angle of the resultant with the direction of velocity.
tan θ = 0.7 / 0.5 = 1.4
θ = tan-1 (1.4) = 54.560

4.32. (a) Show that for a projectile the angle between the velocity and the x-axis as a function of time is given by
θ(t) = tan-1((v0y- gt)/ v0x)
(b) Shows that the projection angle θ0 for a projectile launched from the origin is given by
θ0 = tan-1(4hm/ R)
where the symbols have their usual meaning.

Answer

(a) Let v0x and v0y respectively be the initial components of the velocity of the projectile along horizontal (x) and vertical (y) directions.
Let vx and vy respectively be the horizontal and vertical components of velocity at a point P.

Time taken by the projectile to reach point P = t
Applying the first equation of motion along the vertical and horizontal directions, we get:
vy = v0y = gt
And vx = v0x
∴ tan θ = vy / vx = (v0y - gt) / v0x
θ = tan-1(v0y - gt) / v0x

(b) Maximum vertical height, hm = u02 Sin2θ / 2g   ...(i)
Horizontal range, R = u02 Sin22θ / g   ... (ii)
hm / R = Sin2θ / 2Sin22θ
= Sin θ X Sin θ / 2 X 2SinθCosθ
= Sin θ / 4 Cos θ = tan θ / 4
tan θ = (4hm / R)
θ = tan-1(4hm / R)


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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 5 Laws Of Motion Physics

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 5 Laws Of Motion Physics Science

Page No: 109

Excercises

5.1. Give the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on
(a) a drop of rain falling down with a constant speed,
(b) a cork of mass 10 g floating on water,
(c) a kite skillfully held stationary in the sky,
(d) a car moving with a constant velocity of 30 km/h on a rough road,
(e) a high-speed electron in space far from all material objects, and free of electric and magnetic fields.

Answer

(a) As the rain drop is flling with a constant speed, its accleration, a = 0. Hence net force F= ma = 0.

(b) As the cork is floating on water, its weight is balanced by the upthrust due to water. Therefore, the net force on the cork is 0.

(c) As the kite is held stationery, in accordance with the first law of motion, the net force on the kite is 0.

(d) Force is being applied to overcome the force of friction. But as velocity of the car is constant, its accleleration, a = 0. Hence net force on the car F = ma = 0.

(e) As the high speed electron in space is far away from all gravitating objects and free of electric and magnetic fields, the net force on electron is 0.

5.2. A pebble of mass 0.05 kg is thrown vertically upwards. Give the direction and magnitude of the net force on the pebble,
(a) during its upward motion,
(b) during its downward motion,
(c) at the highest point where it is momentarily at rest. Do your answers change if the pebble was thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal direction?
Ignore air resistance.

Answer

0.5 N, in vertically downward direction, in all cases
Acceleration due to gravity, irrespective of the direction of motion of an object, always acts downward. The gravitational force is the only force that acts on the pebble in all three cases. Its magnitude is given by Newton’s second law of motion as:
F= m × a
Where,
F= Net force
m= Mass of the pebble = 0.05 kg
a = g = 10 m/s2
F= 0.05 × 10 = 0.5 N
The net force on the pebble in all three cases is 0.5 N and this force acts in the downward direction.

If the pebble is thrown at an angle of 45° with the horizontal direction, it will have both the horizontal and vertical components of velocity. At the highest point, only the vertical component of velocity becomes zero. However, the pebble will have the horizontal component of velocity throughout its motion. This component of velocity produces no effect on the net force acting on the pebble.

5.3. Give the magnitude and direction of the net force acting on a stone of mass 0.1 kg,
(a) just after it is dropped from the window of a stationary train,
(b) just after it is dropped from the window of a train running at a constant velocity of 36 km/h,
(c) just after it is dropped from the window of a train accelerating with 1 m s-2,
(d) lying on the floor of a train which is accelerating with 1 m s-2, the stone being at rest relative to the train. Neglect air resistance throughout.

Answer

(a) Here, m = 0.1 Kg, a = + g = 10 m/s2
Net force, F = ma = 0.1 × 10 = 1.0 N
This forcer acts vertically downwards.

(b) When the train is running at a constant velocity, its acceleration = 0, No force acts on the stone due to this motion. Therefore, force on the stone F = weight of stone = mg = 0.1 × 10 = 1.0 N
This force also acts vertically downwards.

(c) When the train is accelerating with 1 m s-2, an additional force F' = ma = 0.1 × 1 = 0.1 N acts on the stone in the horizontal direction. But once the stone is dropped from the train, F' becomes zero and the net force on the stone is F = mg = 0.1 × 10 = 1.0 N, acting vertically downwards.

(d) As the stone is lying on the floor of the trin, its acceleration is same as that of the train.
∴ force acting on stone, F = ma = 0.1 × 1 = 0.1 NThis force is along the horizontal direction of motion of the train.
Note that in each case, the weight of the stone is being balanced by the normal reaction.

Page No: 110

5.4. One end of a string of length l is connected to a particle of mass m and the other to a small peg on a smooth horizontal table. If the particle moves in a circle with speed v the net force on the particle (directed towards the centre) is:
(i) T, (ii) T - mv2 / l, (iii) T + mv2 / l, (iv) 0
T is the tension in the string. 
[Choose the correct alternative].

Answer

(i) T
When a particle connected to a string revolves in a circular path around a centre, the centripetal force is provided by the tension produced in the string. Hence, in the given case, the net force on the particle is the tension T, i.e.,
F = T = mv2 / l
Where F is the net force acting on the particle.

5.5. A constant retarding force of 50 N is applied to a body of mass 20 kg moving initially with a speed of 15 ms–1. How long does the body take to stop?

Answer

Retarding force, F = –50 N
Mass of the body, m= 20 kg
Initial velocity of the body, u= 15 m/s
Final velocity of the body, v= 0
Using Newton’s second law of motion, the acceleration (a) produced in the body can be calculated as:
F= ma
–50 = 20 × a
∴ a = -50/20 = -2.5 ms-2
Using the first equation of motion, the time (t) taken by the body to come to rest can be calculated as:
v= u + at
∴ t = -u / a = -15 / -2.5 = 6 s

5.6. A constant force acting on a body of mass 3.0 kg changes its speed from 2.0 m s–1 to 3.5 m s–1 in 25 s. The direction of the motion of the body remains unchanged. What is the magnitude and direction of the force?

Answer

Mass of the body, m= 3 kg
Initial speed of the body, u= 2 m/s
Final speed of the body, v= 3.5 m/s
Time, t = 25 s
Using the first equation of motion, the acceleration (a) produced in the body can be calculated as:
v= u + at
∴ a = (v - u) / t
= (3.5 - 2) / 25 = 0.06 ms-2
As per Newton’s second law of motion, force is given as:
F= ma
= 3 × 0.06 = 0.18 N
Since the application of force does not change the direction of the body, the net force acting on the body is in the direction of its motion.

5.7. A body of mass 5 kg is acted upon by two perpendicular forces 8 N and 6 N. Give the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the body.

Answer

Mass of the body, m = 5 kg
The given situation can be represented as follows:
The resultant of two forces is given as:



θ is the angle made by R with the force of 8 N
∴ θ = tan-1(-6/8) = -36.870
The negative sign indicates that θ is in the clockwise direction with respect to the force of magnitude 8 N.

As per Newton’s second law of motion, the acceleration (a) of the body is given as:
F = ma
a = F / m = 10 / 5 = 2 ms-2

5.8. The driver of a three-wheeler moving with a speed of 36 km/h sees a child standing in the middle of the road and brings his vehicle to rest in 4.0 s just in time to save the child. What is the average retarding force on the vehicle? The mass of the three-wheeler is 400 kg and the mass of the driver is 65 kg.

Answer

Initial speed of the three-wheeler, u = 36 km/h = 10 m/s
Final speed of the three-wheeler, v = 0 m/s
Time, t = 4 s
Mass of the three-wheeler, m = 400 kg
Mass of the driver, m' = 65 kg
Total mass of the system, M = 400 + 65 = 465 kg
Using the first law of motion, the acceleration (a) of the three-wheeler can be calculated as:
v = u + at
a = (v - u) /t = (0 - 10) / 4 = -2.5 ms-2
The negative sign indicates that the velocity of the three-wheeler is decreasing with time.
Using Newton’s second law of motion, the net force acting on the three-wheeler can be calculated as:
F = Ma
= 465 × (–2.5) = –1162.5 N
The negative sign indicates that the force is acting against the direction of motion of the three-wheeler.

5.9. A rocket with a lift-off mass 20,000 kg is blasted upwards with an initial acceleration of 5.0 m s–2. Calculate the initial thrust (force) of the blast.

Answer

Mass of the rocket, m= 20,000 kg
Initial acceleration, a= 5 m/s2
Acceleration due to gravity, g= 10 m/s2
Using Newton’s second law of motion, the net force (thrust) acting on the rocket is given by the relation:
Fmg = ma
F= m (g + a)
= 20000 × (10 + 5)
= 20000 × 15 = 3 × 105N

5.10. A body of mass 0.40 kg moving initially with a constant speed of 10 m s–1to the north is subject to a constant force of 8.0 N directed towards the south for 30 s. Take the instant the force is applied to be t = 0, the position of the body at that time to be x = 0, and predict its position at t= –5 s, 25 s, 100 s.

Answer

Mass of the body, m= 0.40 kg
Initial speed of the body, u= 10 m/s due north
Force acting on the body, F= –8.0 N
Acceleration produced in the body, a = F / m = -8.0 / 0.40 = -20 ms-2

(i) At t= –5 s
Acceleration, a' = 0 and u = 10 m/s
s = ut + (1/2) a' t2
= 10 × (–5) = –50 m

(ii) At t= 25 s
Acceleration, a'' = –20 m/s2and u = 10 m/s
s' = ut' + (1/2) a" t2
= 10 × 25 + (1/2) × (-20) × (25)2
= 250 - 6250 = -6000 m

(iii) At t= 100 s
For 0 ≤ t ≤ 30 s
a = -20 ms-2
u = 10 m/s
s1 = ut + (1/2)a"t2
= 10 × 30 + (1/2) × (-20) × (30)2
= 300 - 9000  =  -8700 m
For 30 < t ≤ 100 s

As per the first equation of motion, for t= 30 s, final velocity is given as:
v= u + at
= 10 + (–20) × 30 = –590 m/s
Velocity of the body after 30 s = –590 m/s
For motion between 30 s to 100 s, i.e., in 70 s:
s2 = vt + (1/2) a" t2
= -590 × 70 = -41300 m
∴ Total distance, s" = s1 + s2 = -8700 -41300 = -50000 m = -50 km.

5.11. A truck starts from rest and accelerates uniformly at 2.0 m s–2. At t = 10 s, a stone is dropped by a person standing on the top of the truck (6 m high from the ground). What are the (a) velocity, and (b) acceleration of the stone at t = 11 s? (Neglect air resistance.)

Answer

(a) Initial velocity of the truck, u = 0
Acceleration, a = 2 m/s2
Time, t = 10 s
As per the first equation of motion, final velocity is given as:
v = u + at
= 0 + 2 × 10 = 20 m/s
The final velocity of the truck and hence, of the stone is 20 m/s.
At t = 11 s, the horizontal component (vx) of velocity, in the absence of air resistance, remains unchanged, i.e.,
vx = 20 m/s
The vertical component (vy) of velocity of the stone is given by the first equation of motion as:
vy = u + ayδt
Where, δt = 11 – 10 = 1 s and ay = g = 10 m/s2
vy = 0 + 10 × 1 = 10 m/s
The resultant velocity (v) of the stone is given as:

v = (vx2 + vy2)1/2
= (202 + 102)1/2
= 22.36 m/s

Let θ be the angle made by the resultant velocity with the horizontal component of velocity, vx
tanθ = (vy / vx)
θ = tan-1 (10 / 20)
= 26.570


(b)When the stone is dropped from the truck, the horizontal force acting on it becomes zero. However, the stone continues to move under the influence of gravity. Hence, the acceleration of the stone is 10 m/s2 and it acts vertically downward.

5.12. A bob of mass 0.1 kg hung from the ceiling of a room by a string 2 m long is set into oscillation. The speed of the bob at its mean position is 1 m s–1. What is the trajectory of the bob if the string is cut when the bob is (a) at one of its extreme positions, (b) at its mean position.

Answer

(a) Vertically downward
At the extreme position, the velocity of the bob becomes zero. If the string is cut at this moment, then the bob will fall vertically on the ground.

(b) Parabolic path
At the mean position, the velocity of the bob is 1 m/s. The direction of this velocity is tangential to the arc formed by the oscillating bob. If the bob is cut at the mean position, then it will trace a projectile path having the horizontal component of velocity only. Hence, it will follow a parabolic path.

5.13. A man of mass 70 kg stands on a weighing scale in a lift which is moving
(a) upwards with a uniform speed of 10 m s–1,
(b) downwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 m s–2,
(c) upwards with a uniform acceleration of 5 m s–2.
What would be the readings on the scale in each case?
(d) What would be the reading if the lift mechanism failed and it hurtled down freely under gravity?

Answer

(a)Mass of the man, m = 70 kg
Acceleration, a = 0
Using Newton’s second law of motion, we can write the equation of motion as:
Rmg = ma
Where, ma is the net force acting on the man.
As the lift is moving at a uniform speed, acceleration a = 0
R = mg
= 70 × 10 = 700 N
∴ Reading on the weighing scale = 700 / g = 700 / 10 = 70 kg

(b)Mass of the man, m = 70 kg
Acceleration, a = 5 m/s2 downward
Using Newton’s second law of motion, we can write the equation of motion as:
R + mg = ma
R = m(g– a)
= 70 (10 – 5) = 70 × 5
= 350 N
∴ Reading on the weighing scale = 350 g = 350 / 10 = 35 kg

(c)Mass of the man, m = 70 kg
Acceleration, a = 5 m/s2 upward
Using Newton’s second law of motion, we can write the equation of motion as:
Rmg = ma
R = m(g + a)
= 70 (10 + 5) = 70 × 15
= 1050 N
∴ Reading on the weighing scale = 1050 / g = 1050 / 10 = 105 kg

(d)When the lift moves freely under gravity, acceleration a = g
Using Newton’s second law of motion, we can write the equation of motion as:
R + mg = ma
R = m(g– a)
= m(g – g) = 0
∴ Reading on the weighing scale = 0 / g = 0 kg
The man will be in a state of weightlessness.

5.14. Figure 5.16 shows the position-time graph of a particle of mass 4 kg. What is the (a) force on the particle for t< 0, t> 4 s,0 < t< 4 s? (b) impulse at t = 0 and t = 4 s? (Consider one-dimensional motion only).
Answer

(a) For t< 0
It can be observed from the given graph that the position of the particle is coincident with the time axis. It indicates that the displacement of the particle in this time interval is zero. Hence, the force acting on the particle is zero.

For t> 4 s
It can be observed from the given graph that the position of the particle is parallel to the time axis. It indicates that the particle is at rest at a distance of
3 m from the origin. Hence, no force is acting on the particle.

For 0 < t< 4
It can be observed that the given position-time graph has a constant slope. Hence, the acceleration produced in the particle is zero. Therefore, the force acting on the particle is zero.

(b)At t = 0
Impulse = Change in momentum
= mv – mu
Mass of the particle, m = 4 kg
Initial velocity of the particle, u = 0
Final velocity of the particle, v = 3 / 4 m/s
∴ Impulse = 4 ( 3/4 - 0) = 3 kg m/s

At t = 4 s
Initial velocity of the particle, u = 3 / 4 m/s
Final velocity o9f the particle, v = 0
∴ Impulse = 4 (0 - 3/4) = -3 kg m/s

5.15. Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 20 kg respectively kept on a smooth, horizontal surface are tied to the ends of a light string. A horizontal force F = 600 N is applied to (i) A, (ii) B along the direction of string. What is the tension in the string in each case?

Answer

Horizontal force, F = 600 N
Mass of body A, m1= 10 kg
Mass of body B, m2= 20 kg
Total mass of the system, m= m1+ m2= 30 kg
Using Newton’s second law of motion, the acceleration (a) produced in the system can be calculated as:
F= ma
a = F / m  =  600 / 30  =  20 ms-2
When force Fis applied on body A:
The equation of motion can be written as:
F – T = m1a
T= Fm1a
= 600 – 10 × 20 = 400 N … (i)


When force Fis applied on body B:
The equation of motion can be written as:
FT= m2a
T= Fm2a
T= 600 – 20 × 20 = 200 N … (ii)
which is different from value of T in case (i). Hence our answer depends on which mass end, the force is applied.

Page No: 111

5.16. Two masses 8 kg and 12 kg are connected at the two ends of a light inextensible string that goes over a frictionless pulley. Find the acceleration of the masses, and the tension in the string when the masses are released.

Answer

The given system of two masses and a pulley can be represented as shown in the following figure:
Smaller mass, m1= 8 kg
Larger mass, m2= 12 kg
Tension in the string = T
Mass m2, owing to its weight, moves downward with acceleration a,and mass m1 moves upward.
Applying Newton’s second law of motion to the system of each mass:

For mass m1:
The equation of motion can be written as:
Tm1g = ma(i)

For mass m2:
The equation of motion can be written as:
m2gT= m2a(ii)

Adding equations (i) and (ii), we get:
(m2 - m1)g = (m1 + m2)a
∴ a = ( (m2 - m1) / (m1 + m2) )g    ....(iii)
= (12 - 8) / (12 + 8) × 10  =  4 × 10 / 20  =  2 ms-2
Therefore, the acceleration of the masses is 2 m/s2.
Substituting the value of ain equation (ii), we get:
m2g - T = m2(m2 - m1)g / (m1 + m2)
T = (m2 - (m22 - m1m2) / (m1 + m2) )g
= 2m1m2g / (m1 + m2)
= 2 × 12 × 8 × 10 / (12 + 8)
= 96 N
Therefore, the tension in the string is 96 N.

5.17. A nucleus is at rest in the laboratory frame of reference. Show that if it disintegrates into two smaller nuclei the products must move in opposite directions.

Answer

Let m, m1, and m2be the respective masses of the parent nucleus and the two daughter nuclei. The parent nucleus is at rest.
Initial momentum of the system (parent nucleus) = 0
Let v1and v2be the respective velocities of the daughter nuclei having masses m1and m2.
Total linear momentum of the system after disintegration = m1v1 + m2v2
According to the law of conservation of momentum:
Total initial momentum = Total final momentum
0 = m1v1 + m2v2
v1 = -m2v2/ m1
Here, the negative sign indicates that the fragments of the parent nucleus move in directions opposite to each other.

5.18. Two billiard balls each of mass 0.05 kg moving in opposite directions with speed 6 m s–1collide and rebound with the same speed. What is the impulse imparted to each ball due to the other?

Answer

Mass of each ball = 0.05 kg
Initial velocity of each ball = 6 m/s
Magnitude of the initial momentum of each ball, pi= 0.3 kg m/s
After collision, the balls change their directions of motion without changing the magnitudes of their velocity.
Final momentum of each ball, pf= –0.3 kg m/s
Impulse imparted to each ball = Change in the momentum of the system
= pfpi
= –0.3 – 0.3 = –0.6 kg m/s
The negative sign indicates that the impulses imparted to the balls are opposite in direction.

5.19. A shell of mass 0.020 kg is fired by a gun of mass 100 kg. If the muzzle speed of the shell is 80 m s–1, what is the recoil speed of the gun?

Answer

Mass of the gun, M= 100 kg
Mass of the shell, m= 0.020 kg
Muzzle speed of the shell, v= 80 m/s
Recoil speed of the gun = V
Both the gun and the shell are at rest initially.
Initial momentum of the system = 0
Final momentum of the system = mvMV
Here, the negative sign appears because the directions of the shell and the gun are opposite to each other.
According to the law of conservation of momentum:
Final momentum = Initial momentum
mvMV= 0
V = mv / M
= 0.020 × 80 / (100 × 1000) = 0.016 m/s

5.20. A batsman deflects a ball by an angle of 45° without changing its initial speed which is equal to 54 km/h. What is the impulse imparted to the ball? (Mass of the ball is 0.15 kg.)

Answer

The given situation can be represented as shown in the following figure.
Where,
AO = Incident path of the ball
OB = Path followed by the ball after deflection
∠AOB = Angle between the incident and deflected paths of the ball = 45°
∠AOP = ∠BOP = 22.5° = θ
Initial and final velocities of the ball =v
Horizontal component of the initial velocity = vcos θ along RO
Vertical component of the initial velocity = vsin θ along PO
Horizontal component of the final velocity = vcos θ along OS
Vertical component of the final velocity = vsin θalong OP
The horizontal components of velocities suffer no change. The vertical components of velocities are in the opposite directions.
∴ Impulse imparted to the ball = Change in the linear momentum of the ball
= mvCosθ - (-mvCosθ)  =  2mvCosθ
Mass of the ball, m= 0.15 kg
Velocity of the ball, v= 54 km/h = 15 m/s
∴ Impulse = 2 × 0.15 × 15 cos 22.5° = 4.16 kg m/s

5.21. A stone of mass 0.25 kg tied to the end of a string is whirled round in a circle of radius 1.5 m with a speed of 40 rev./min in a horizontal plane. What is the tension in the string? What is the maximum speed with which the stone can be whirled around if the string can withstand a maximum tension of 200 N?

Answer

Mass of the stone, m = 0.25 kg
Radius of the circle, r = 1.5 m
Number of revolution per second, n = 40 / 60 = 2 / 3 rps
Angular velocity, ω = v / r = 2πn
The centripetal force for the stone is provided by the tension T, in the string, i.e.,
T = FCentripetal
= mv2 / r = mrω = mr(2πn)2
= 0.25 × 1.5 × (2 × 3.14 × (2/3) )2
= 6.57 N
Maximum tension in the string, Tmax = 200 N
Tmax = mv2max / r
∴ vmax = (Tmax × r  / m)1/2
= (200 × 1.5 / 0.25)1/2
= (1200)1/2 = 34.64 m/s
Therefore, the maximum speed of the stone is 34.64 m/s.

5.22. If, in Exercise 5.21, the speed of the stone is increased beyond the maximum permissible value, and the string breaks suddenly, which of the following correctly describes the trajectory of the stone after the string breaks:
(a) the stone moves radially outwards,
(b) the stone flies off tangentially from the instant the string breaks,
(c) the stone flies off at an angle with the tangent whose magnitude depends on the speed of the particle ?

Answer

(b) the stone flies off tangentially from the instant the string breaks,
When the string breaks, the stone will move in the direction of the velocity at that instant. According to the first law of motion, the direction of velocity vector is tangential to the path of the stone at that instant. Hence, the stone will fly off tangentially from the instant the string breaks.

5.23. Explain why
(a) a horse cannot pull a cart and run in empty space,
(b) passengers are thrown forward from their seats when a speeding bus stops suddenly,
(c) it is easier to pull a lawn mower than to push it,
(d) a cricketer moves his hands backwards while holding a catch.

Answer

(a) While trying to pull a cart, ahorse pushes the ground backward with some force. The ground in turn exerts an equal and opposite reaction force upon the feet of the horse. This reaction force causes the horse to move forward.
An empty space is devoid of any such reaction force. Therefore, a horse cannot pull a cart and run in empty space.

(b) This is due to inertia of motion. When a speeding bus stops suddenly, the lower part of a passenger's body, which is in contact with the seat, suddenly comes to rest. However, the upper part tends to remain in motion (as per the first law of motion). As a result, the passenger's upper body is thrown forward in the direction in which the bus was moving.

(c) While pulling a lawn mower, a force at an angle θ is applied on it, as shown in the following figure.
The vertical component of this applied force acts upward. This reduces the effective weight of the mower.
On the other hand, while pushing a lawn mower, a force at an angle θ is applied on it, as shown in the following figure.
In this case, the vertical component of the applied force acts in the direction of the weight of the mower. This increases the effective weight of the mower.
Since the effective weight of the lawn mower is lesser in the first case, pulling the lawn mower is easier than pushing it.

(d) According to Newton’s second law of motion, we have the equation of motion:
F = ma = mv /t      ...(i)
Where,
F = Stopping force experienced by the cricketer as he catches the ball
m = Mass of the ball
Δt = Time of impact of the ball with the hand
It can be inferred from equation (i) that the impact force is inversely proportional to the impact time, i.e.,
F  1 / Δt      ....(ii)
Equation (ii) shows that the force experienced by the cricketer decreases if the time of impact increases and vice versa.
While taking a catch, a cricketer moves his hand backward so as to increase the time of impact (Δt). This is turn results in the decrease in the stopping force, thereby preventing the hands of the cricketer from getting hurt.

Additional Excercises

5.24. Figure 5.17 shows the position-time graph of a body of mass 0.04 kg. Suggest a suitable physical context for this motion. What is the time between two consecutive impulses received by the body? What is the magnitude of each impulse?

Answer

A ball rebounding between two walls located between at x= 0 and x= 2 cm; after every 2 s, the ball receives an impulse of magnitude 0.08 × 10–2kg m/s from the walls
The given graph shows that a body changes its direction of motion after every 2 s. Physically, this situation can be visualized as a ball rebounding to and fro between two stationary walls situated between positions x= 0 and x= 2 cm. Since the slope of the x-tgraph reverses after every 2 s, the ball collides with a wall after every 2 s. Therefore, ball receives an impulse after every 2 s.
Mass of the ball, m= 0.04 kg
The slope of the graph gives the velocity of the ball. Using the graph, we can calculate initial velocity (u) as:u = (2 - 0) × 10-2 / (2 - 0)  =  10-2 m/s
Velocity of the ball before collision, u= 10–2m/s
Velocity of the ball after collision, v= –10–2m/s
(Here, the negative sign arises as the ball reverses its direction of motion.)
Magnitude of impulse = Change in momentum
= | mv - mu |
= | 0.04 (v - u) |
= | 0.04 (-10-2 - 10-2) |
= 0.08 × 10-2 kg m/s

5.25.Figure 5.18 shows a man standing stationary with respect to a horizontal conveyor belt that is accelerating with 1 m s–2. What is the net force on the man? If the coefficient of static friction between the man’s shoes and the belt is 0.2, up to what acceleration of the belt can the man continue to be stationary relative to the belt? (Mass of the man = 65 kg.)
Answer

Mass of the man, m= 65 kg
Acceleration of the belt, a= 1 m/s2
Coefficient of static friction, μ= 0.2
The net force F, acting on the man is given by Newton’s second law of motion as:
Fnet = ma = 65 × 1 = 65 N
The man will continue to be stationary with respect to the conveyor belt until the net force on the man is less than or equal to the frictional force fs, exerted by the belt, i.e.,
F'net = fs
ma' = μmg
a' = 0.2 × 10 = 2 m/s2
Therefore, the maximum acceleration of the belt up to which the man can stand stationary is 2 m/s2.

Page No: 112

5.26. A stone of mass m tied to the end of a string revolves in a vertical circle of radius R. The net forces at the lowest and highest points of the circle directed vertically downwards are: [Choose the correct alternative]
Lowest Point Highest Point
(a)mg– T1mg + T2
(b) mg + T1mg– T2
(c)mg + T1 (mv12) / Rmg– T2 + (mv12) / R
(d)mg– T1(mv12) / Rmg + T2 + (mv12) / R

T1 and V1 denote the tension and speed at the lowest point. T2 and v2 denote corresponding values at the highest point.

Answer

(a) The free body diagram of the stone at the lowest point is shown in the following figure.
According to Newton’s second law of motion, the net force acting on the stone at this point is equal to the centripetal force, i.e.,
Fnet = T - mg = mv12 / R  ....(i)
Where, v1 = Velocity at the lowest point

The free body diagram of the stone at the highest point is shown in the following figure.

Using Newton’s second law of motion, we have:
T + mg = mv22 / R   ...(ii)
Where, v2 = Velocity at the highest point
It is clear from equations (i) and (ii) that the net force acting at the lowest and the highest points are respectively (Tmg) and (T + mg).

5.27. A helicopter of mass 1000 kg rises with a vertical acceleration of 15 m s–2. The crew and the passengers weigh 300 kg. Give the magnitude and direction of the
(a) force on the floor by the crew and passengers,
(b) action of the rotor of the helicopter on the surrounding air,
(c) force on the helicopter due to the surrounding air.

Answer

(a)Mass of the helicopter, mh = 1000 kg
Mass of the crew and passengers, mp = 300 kg
Total mass of the system, m = 1300 kg
Acceleration of the helicopter, a = 15 m/s2
Using Newton’s second law of motion, the reaction force R, on the system by the floor can be calculated as:
Rmpg = ma
= mp(g + a)
= 300 (10 + 15) = 300 × 25
= 7500 N
Since the helicopter is accelerating vertically upward, the reaction force will also be directed upward. Therefore, as per Newton’s third law of motion, the force on the floor by the crew and passengers is 7500 N, directed downward.

(b) Using Newton’s second law of motion, the reaction force R’, experienced by the helicopter can be calculated as:
R' - mg = ma
= m(g + a)
= 1300 (10 + 15) = 1300 × 25
= 32500 N
The reaction force experienced by the helicopter from the surrounding air is acting upward. Hence, as per Newton’s third law of motion, the action of the rotor on the surrounding air will be 32500 N, directed downward.

(c) The force on the helicopter due to the surrounding air is 32500 N, directed upward.

5.28. A stream of water flowing horizontally with a speed of 15 m s–1gushes out of a tube of cross-sectional area 10–2m2, and hits a vertical wall nearby. What is the force exerted on the wall by the impact of water, assuming it does not rebound?

Answer

Speed of the water stream, v= 15 m/s
Cross-sectional area of the tube, A= 10–2m2
Volume of water coming out from the pipe per second,
V= Av = 15 × 10–2m3/s
Density of water, ρ= 103kg/m3
Mass of water flowing out through the pipe per second = ρ× V= 150 kg/s
The water strikes the wall and does not rebound. Therefore, the force exerted by the water on the wall is given by Newton’s second law of motion as:
F= Rate of change of momentum = ∆P / ∆t
= mv / t
= 150 × 15 = 2250 N

5.29. Ten one-rupee coins are put on top of each other on a table. Each coin has a mass m. Give the magnitude and direction of
(a) the force on the 7th coin (counted from the bottom) due to all the coins on its top,
(b) the force on the 7th coin by the eighth coin,
(c) the reaction of the 6th coin on the 7th coin.

Answer

(a)Force on the seventh coin is exerted by the weight of the three coins on its top.
Weight of one coin = mg
Weight of three coins = 3mg
Hence, the force exerted on the 7th coin by the three coins on its top is 3mg. This force acts vertically downward.

(b)Force on the seventh coin by the eighth coin is because of the weight of the eighth coin and the other two coins (ninth and tenth) on its top.
Weight of the eighth coin = mg
Weight of the ninth coin = mg
Weight of the tenth coin = mg
Total weight of these three coins = 3mg
Hence, the force exerted on the 7th coin by the eighth coin is 3mg. This force acts vertically downward.

(c)The 6th coin experiences a downward force because of the weight of the four coins (7th, 8th, 9th, and 10th) on its top.
Therefore, the total downward force experienced by the 6th coin is 4mg.
As per Newton’s third law of motion, the 6th coin will produce an equal reaction force on the 7th coin, but in the opposite direction. Hence, the reaction force of the 6th coin on the 7th coin is of magnitude 4mg. This force acts in the upward direction.

5.30. An aircraft executes a horizontal loop at a speed of 720 km/h with its wings banked at 15°. What is the radius of the loop?

Answer

Speed of the aircraft, v = 720 km/h = 720 × 5 / 18  =  200 m/s
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2
Angle of banking, θ = 15°
For radius r, of the loop, we have the relation:
tanθ = v2 / rg
r = v2 / g tan θ
2002 / (10 × tan 15)
= 4000 / 0.26
= 14925.37 m
= 14.92 km

5.31. A train runs along an unbanked circular track of radius 30 m at a speed of 54 km/h. The mass of the train is 106 kg. What provides the centripetal force required for this purpose – The engine or the rails? What is the angle of banking required to prevent wearing out of the rail?

Answer

Radius of the circular track, r= 30 m
Speed of the train, v= 54 km/h = 15 m/s
Mass of the train, m= 106kg
The centripetal force is provided by the lateral thrust of the rail on the wheel. As per Newton’s third law of motion, the wheel exerts an equal and opposite force on the rail. This reaction force is responsible for the wear and rear of the rail
The angle of banking θ, is related to the radius (r) and speed (v) by the relation:
tanθ = v2 / rg
= 152 / (30 × 10)
= 225 / 300
θ = tan-1 (0.75) = 36.870
Therefore, the angle of banking is about 36.87°.

5.32. A block of mass 25 kg is raised by a 50 kg man in two different ways as shown in Fig. 5.19. What is the action on the floor by the man in the two cases? If the floor yields to a normal force of 700 N, which mode should the man adopt to lift the block without the floor yielding?
Answer

750 N and 250 N in the respective cases; Method (b)
Mass of the block, m = 25 kg
Mass of the man, M = 50 kg
Acceleration due to gravity, g = 10 m/s2
Force applied on the block, F = 25 × 10 = 250 N
Weight of the man, W = 50 × 10 = 500 N

Case (a): When the man lifts the block directly
In this case, the man applies a force in the upward direction. This increases his apparent weight.
∴Action on the floor by the man = 250 + 500 = 750 N

Case (b): When the man lifts the block using a pulley
In this case, the man applies a force in the downward direction. This decreases his apparent weight.
∴Action on the floor by the man = 500 – 250 = 250 N

If the floor can yield to a normal force of 700 N, then the man should adopt the second method to easily lift the block by applying lesser force.

Page No: 113

5.33. A monkey of mass 40 kg climbs on a rope (Fig. 5.20) which can stand a maximum tension of 600 N. In which of the following cases will the rope break: the monkey
(a) climbs up with an acceleration of 6 m s–2
(b) climbs down with an acceleration of 4 m s–2
(c) climbs up with a uniform speed of 5 m s–1
(d) falls down the rope nearly freely under gravity?
(Ignore the mass of the rope).
Answer

Case (a)
Mass of the monkey, m= 40 kg
Acceleration due to gravity, g= 10 m/s
Maximum tension that the rope can bear, Tmax= 600 N
Acceleration of the monkey, a= 6 m/s2upward
Using Newton’s second law of motion, we can write the equation of motion as:
Tmg= ma
T= m(g+ a)
= 40 (10 + 6)
= 640 N
Since T> Tmax, the rope will break in this case.

Case (b)
Acceleration of the monkey, a= 4 m/s2downward
Using Newton’s second law of motion, we can write the equation of motion as:
mg – T = ma
T= m (g– a)
= 40(10 – 4)
= 240 N
Since T< Tmax, the rope will not break in this case.

Case (c)
The monkey is climbing with a uniform speed of 5 m/s. Therefore, its acceleration is zero, i.e., a= 0.
Using Newton’s second law of motion, we can write the equation of motion as:
Tmg = ma
Tmg = 0
T = mg
= 40 × 10
= 400 N
Since T< Tmax, the rope will not break in this case.

Case (d)
When the monkey falls freely under gravity, its will acceleration become equal to the acceleration due to gravity, i.e., a = g
Using Newton’s second law of motion, we can write the equation of motion as:
mg – T= mg
T= m(gg) = 0
Since T< Tmax, the rope will not break in this case.


5.34.  Two bodies A and B of masses 5 kg and 10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table against a rigid wall (Fig. 5.21). The coefficient of friction between the bodies and the table is 0.15. A force of 200 N is applied horizontally to A. What are (a) the reaction of the partition (b) the action-reaction forces between A and B? What happens when the wall is removed? Does the answer to (b) change, when the bodies are in motion? Ignore the difference between μs and μk.
Answer

(a) Mass of body A, mA = 5 kg Mass of body B, mB = 10 kg
Applied force, F = 200 N
Coefficient of friction, μs = 0.15
The force of friction is given by the relation:
fs = μ (mA +mB)g
= 0.15 (5 + 10) × 10
= 1.5 × 15 = 22.5 N leftward
Net force acting on the partition = 200 – 22.5 = 177.5 N rightward
As per Newton’s third law of motion, the reaction force of the partition will be in the direction opposite to the net applied force.
Hence, the reaction of the partition will be 177.5 N, in the leftward direction.

(b)Force of friction on mass A:
fA = μmAg
= 0.15 × 5 × 10 = 7.5 N leftward
Net force exerted by mass A on mass B = 200 – 7.5 = 192.5 N rightward
As per Newton’s third law of motion, an equal amount of reaction force will be exerted by mass B on mass A, i.e., 192.5 N acting leftward.
When the wall is removed, the two bodies will move in the direction of the applied force.
Net force acting on the moving system = 177.5 N
The equation of motion for the system of acceleration a,can be written as:
Net force = (mA + mB) a
∴ a = Net force / (mA + mB)
= 177.5 / (5 + 10) = 177.5 / 15 = 11.83 ms-2
Net force causing mass A to move:
FA = mAa
= 5 × 11.83 = 59.15 N
Net force exerted by mass A on mass B = 192.5 – 59.15 = 133.35 N
This force will act in the direction of motion. As per Newton’s third law of motion, an equal amount of force will be exerted by mass B on mass A, i.e., 133.3 N, acting opposite to the direction of motion.

5.35. A block of mass 15 kg is placed on a long trolley. The coefficient of static friction between the block and the trolley is 0.18. The trolley accelerates from rest with 0.5 m s–2for 20 s and then moves with uniform velocity. Discuss the motion of the block as viewed by (a) a stationary observer on the ground, (b) an observer moving with the trolley.

Answer

(a) Mass of the block, m = 15 kg
Coefficient of static friction, μ = 0.18
Acceleration of the trolley, a = 0.5 m/s2
As per Newton’s second law of motion, the force (F) on the block caused by the motion of the trolley is given by the relation:
F = ma = 15 × 0.5 = 7.5 N
This force is acted in the direction of motion of the trolley.
Force of static friction between the block and the trolley:
f = μmg
= 0.18 × 15 × 10 = 27 N
The force of static friction between the block and the trolley is greater than the applied external force. Hence, for an observer on the ground, the block will appear to be at rest.
When the trolley moves with uniform velocity there will be no applied external force. Only the force of friction will act on the block in this situation.

(b)An observer, moving with the trolley, has some acceleration. This is the case of non-inertial frame of reference. The frictional force, acting on the trolley backward, is opposed by a pseudo force of the same magnitude. However, this force acts in the opposite direction. Thus, the trolley will appear to be at rest for the observer moving with the trolley.

5.36. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed 5 m away from the open end as shown in Fig. 5.22. The coefficient of friction between the box and the surface below it is 0.15. On a straight road, the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2 m s–2. At what distance from the starting point does the box fall off the truck? (Ignore the size of the box).
Answer

Mass of the box, m= 40 kg
Coefficient of friction, μ= 0.15
Initial velocity, u= 0
Acceleration, a = 2 m/s2
Distance of the box from the end of the truck, s' = 5 m
As per Newton’s second law of motion, the force on the box caused by the accelerated motion of the truck is given by:
F= ma
= 40 × 2 = 80 N
As per Newton’s third law of motion, a reaction force of 80 N is acting on the box in the backward direction. The backward motion of the box is opposed by the force of friction f, acting between the box and the floor of the truck. This force is given by:
f= μmg
= 0.15 × 40 × 10 = 60 N
∴Net force acting on the block:
Fnet= 80 – 60 = 20 N backward
The backward acceleration produced in the box is given by:
aback = Fnet / m  =  20 / 40 = 0.5 ms-2
Using the second equation of motion, time t can be calculated as:
s' = ut + (1/2)abackt2
5 = 0 + (1/2) × 0.5 × t2
∴ t = √20 s
Hence, the box will fall from the truck after √20 s from start.
The distance s, travelled by the truck in √20 s is given by the relation:
s = ut + (1/2)at2
= 0 + (1/2) × 2 × (√20)2
= 20 m

5.37. A disc revolves with a speed of 100 / 3 rev / min, and has a radius of 15 cm. Two coins are placed at 4 cm and 14 cm away from the centre of the record. If the co-efficient of friction between the coins and the record is 0.15, which of the coins will revolve with the record?

Answer

Coin placed at 4 cm from the centre
Mass of each coin = m
Radius of the disc, r= 15 cm = 0.15 m
Frequency of revolution, ν= 100 / 3 rev/min = 100 / (3 × 60) = 5 / 9 rev/s
Coefficient of friction, μ= 0.15
In the given situation, the coin having a force of friction greater than or equal to the centripetal force provided by the rotation of the disc will revolve with the disc. If this is not the case, then the coin will slip from the disc.

Coin placed at 4 cm:
Radius of revolution, r' = 4 cm = 0.04 m
Angular frequency, ω= 2πν = 2 × (22/7) × (5/9) = 3.49 s-1
Frictional force, f = μmg = 0.15 × m× 10 = 1.5mN
Centripetal force on the coin:
Fcent. = mr'ω2
= m × 0.04 × (3.49)2
= 0.49m N
Sincef > Fcent, the coin will revolve along with the record.

Coin placed at 14 cm:
Radius, r" = 14 cm = 0.14 m
Angular frequency, ω= 3.49 s–1
Frictional force, f' = 1.5m N
Centripetal force is given as:
Fcent. = mr"ω2
= m× 0.14 × (3.49)2
= 1.7m N
Since f< Fcent., the coin will slip from the surface of the record.

5.38. You may have seen in a circus a motorcyclist driving in vertical loops inside a ‘death-well’ (a hollow spherical chamber with holes, so the spectators can watch from outside). Explain clearly why the motorcyclist does not drop down when he is at the uppermost point, with no support from below. What is the minimum speed required at the uppermost position to perform a vertical loop if the radius of the chamber is 25 m?

Answer

In a death-well, a motorcyclist does not fall at the top point of a vertical loop because both the force of normal reaction and the weight of the motorcyclist act downward and are balanced by the centripetal force. This situation is shown in the following figure.
The net force acting on the motorcyclist is the sum of the normal force (FN) and the force due to gravity (Fg = mg).
The equation of motion for the centripetal acceleration ac, can be written as:
Fnet= mac
FN + Fg = mac
FN + mg = mv2 / r
Normal reaction is provided by the speed of the motorcyclist. At the minimum speed (vmin), FN= 0
mg = mvmin2 / r
vmin = √rg

= √25 X 10 = 15.8 m/s

5.39. A 70 kg man stands in contact against the inner wall of a hollow cylindrical drum of radius 3 m rotating about its vertical axis with 200 rev/min. The coefficient of friction between the wall and his clothing is 0.15. What is the minimum rotational speed of the cylinder to enable the man to remain stuck to the wall (without falling) when the floor is suddenly removed?

Answer

Mass of the man, m= 70 kg
Radius of the drum, r= 3 m
Coefficient of friction, μ= 0.15
Frequency of rotation, ν = 200 rev/min = 200 / 60 = 10 / 3 rev/s
The necessary centripetal force required for the rotation of the man is provided by the normal force (FN).
When the floor revolves, the man sticks to the wall of the drum. Hence, the weight of the man (mg) acting downward is balanced by the frictional force
(f = μFN) acting upward.
Hence, the man will not fall until:
mg < f
mg < μFN= μmrω2
g < μ2
ω > (g / μr)1/2
The minimum angular speed is given as:
ωmin = (g / μr)1/2
= ( 10 / (0.15 X 3) )1/2  =  4.71 rad s-1

5.40. A thin circular loop of radius R rotates about its vertical diameter with an angular frequency ω. Show that a small bead on the wire loop remains at its lowermost point for ω g/R. What is the angle made by the radius vector joining the centre to the bead with the vertical downward direction for ω = 2g/R? Neglect friction.

Answer

Let the radius vector joining the bead with the centre make an angle θ, with the vertical downward direction.
OP = R = Radius of the circle
N= Normal reaction
The respective vertical and horizontal equations of forces can be written as:
mg = N Cosθ ... (i)
mlω2= Sinθ(ii)

In ΔOPQ, we have:
Sinθ = l / R
l = R Sinθ … (iii)
Substituting equation (iii)in equation (ii), we get:
m(R Sinθ) ω2= N Sinθ
mR ω2= N ... (iv)
Substituting equation (iv)in equation (i), we get:
mg= mR ω2 Cosθ
Cosθ = g / Rω2    ...(v)
Since cosθ≤ 1, the bead will remain at its lowermost point for g / Rω2≤ 1, i.e., for ω ≤ (g / R)1/2
For ω = (2g / R)1/2  or ω2 = 2g / R   .....(vi)

On equating equations (v)and (vi), we get:
2g / R = g / RCosθ
Cosθ = 1 / 2
θ = Cos-1(0.5)  =  600



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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 6 Work, Energy And Power Physics

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 6 Work, Energy And Power Physics Science

Page No: 134

Excercises

6.1. The sign of work done by a force on a body is important to understand. State carefully if the following quantities are positive or negative:
(a) work done by a man in lifting a bucket out of a well by means of a rope tied to the bucket.
(b) work done by gravitational force in the above case,
(c) work done by friction on a body sliding down an inclined plane,
(d) work done by an applied force on a body moving on a rough horizontal plane with uniform velocity,
(e) work done by the resistive force of air on a vibrating pendulum in bringing it to rest.

Answer

(a) Positive
In the given case, force and displacement are in the same direction. Hence, the sign of work done is positive. In this case, the work is done on the bucket.

(b) Negative
In the given case, the direction of force (vertically downward) and displacement (vertically upward) are opposite to each other. Hence, the sign of work done is negative.

(c) Negative
Since the direction of frictional force is opposite to the direction of motion, the work done by frictional force is negative in this case.

(d) Positive
Here the body is moving on a rough horizontal plane. Frictional force opposes the motion of the body. Therefore, in order to maintain a uniform velocity, a uniform force must be applied to the body. Since the applied force acts in the direction of motion of the body, the work done is positive.

(e) Negative
The resistive force of air acts in the direction opposite to the direction of motion of the pendulum. Hence, the work done is negative in this case.

6.2. A body of mass 2 kg initially at rest moves under the action of an applied horizontal force of 7 N on a table with coefficient of kinetic friction = 0.1.
Compute the
(a) work done by the applied force in 10 s,
(b) work done by friction in 10 s,
(c) work done by the net force on the body in 10 s,
(d) change in kinetic energy of the body in 10 s,
and interpret your results.

Answer

Mass of the body, m= 2 kg
Applied force, F = 7 N
Coefficient of kinetic friction, µ= 0.1
Initial velocity, u= 0
Time, t = 10 s
The acceleration produced in the body by the applied force is given by Newton’s second law of motion as:
a' = F / m = 7 / 2 = 3.5 ms-2
Frictional force is given as:
f= µmg
= 0.1 × 2 × 9.8 = – 1.96 N
The acceleration produced by the frictional force:
a" = -1.96 / 2 = -0.98 ms-2
Total acceleration of the body: a' + a"
= 3.5 + (-0.98) = 2.52 ms-2
The distance travelled by the body is given by the equation of motion:
s = ut + (1/2)at2
= 0 + (1/2) × 2.52 × (10)2 = 126 m

(a) Work done by the applied force, Wa= F×s = 7 × 126 = 882 J

(b) Work done by the frictional force, Wf=F× s= –1.96 × 126 = –247 J

(c)Net force = 7 + (–1.96) = 5.04 N
Work done by the net force, Wnet= 5.04 ×126 = 635 J

(d) From the first equation of motion, final velocity can be calculated as:
v= u + at
= 0 + 2.52 × 10 = 25.2 m/s
Change in kinetic energy = (1/2) mv2 - (1/2) mu2
= (1/2) × 2(v2 - u2) = (25.2)2 - 02 = 635 J

6.3. Given in Fig. 6.11 are examples of some potential energy functions in one dimension. The total energy of the particle is indicated by a cross on the ordinate axis. In each case, specify the regions, if any, in which the particle cannot be found for the given energy. Also, indicate the minimum total energy the particle must have in each case. Think of simple physical contexts for which these potential energy shapes are relevant.

Answer

Total energy of a system is given by the relation:
E = P.E. + K. E.
∴ K.E. = E – P.E.
Kinetic energy of a body is a positive quantity. It cannot be negative. Therefore, the particle will not exist in a region where K.E. becomes negative.

(i) For x> a, P.E. (V0) > E
∴ K.E. becomes negative. Hence, the object cannot exist in the region x > a.

(ii) For x< a and > b, P.E. (V0) > E.
∴ K.E. becomes negative. Hence the object cannot be present in the region x < a and x > b.

(c) x> a and x< b;  –V1
In the given case, the condition regarding the positivity of K.E. is satisfied only in the region between x > a and x < b.
The minimum potential energy in this case is –V1. Therfore, K.E.  = E– (–V1) = E +V1. Therefore, for the positivity of the kinetic energy, the total energy of the particle must be greater than –V1. So, the minimum total energy the particle must have is –V1.

(d)-b/2 <  x<  a/2 ; a/2 < x< b/2 ; -V1

In the given case, the potential energy (V0) of the particle becomes greater than the total energy (E) for -b/2 < x < b/2 and -a/2 <  x< a/2. Therefore, the particle will not exist in these regions.
The minimum potential energy in this case is –V1. Therfore, K.E.  = E– (–V1) = E +V1. Therefore, for the positivity of the kinetic energy, the totaol energy of the particle must be greater than –V1. So, the minimum total energy the particle must have is –V1.

Page No: 135

6.4. The potential energy function for a particle executing linear simple harmonic motion is given by V(x) =kx2/2, where k is the force constant of the oscillator. For k = 0.5 N m–1, the graph of V(x) versus x is shown in Fig. 6.12. Show that a particle of total energy 1 J moving under this potential must ‘turn back’ when it reaches x = ± 2 m.
Answer

Total energy of the particle, E= 1 J
Force constant, k= 0.5 N m–1
Kinetic energy of the particle, K = (1/2)mv2
According to the conservation law:
E= V + K
1 = (1/2)kx2 + (1/2)mv2
At the moment of ‘turn back’, velocity (and hence K) becomes zero.
∴ 1 = (1/2)kx2
(1/2) × 0.5x2 = 1
x2 = 4
x = ±2
Hence, the particle turns back when it reaches x = ± 2 m.

6.5. Answer the following:
(a) The casing of a rocket in flight burns up due to friction. At whose expense is the heat energy required for burning obtained? The rocket or the atmosphere?
(b) Comets move around the sun in highly elliptical orbits. The gravitational force on the comet due to the sun is not normal to the comet’s velocity in general. Yet the work done by the gravitational force over every complete orbit of the comet is zero. Why?
(c) An artificial satellite orbiting the earth in very thin atmosphere loses its energy gradually due to dissipation against atmospheric resistance, however small. Why then does its speed increase progressively as it comes closer and closer to the earth?
(d) In Fig. 6.13(i) the man walks 2 m carrying a mass of 15 kg on his hands. In Fig. 6.13(ii), he walks the same distance pulling the rope behind him. The rope goes over a pulley, and a mass of 15 kg hangs at its other end. In which case is the work done greater?
Answer

(a)Rocket
The burning of the casing of a rocket in flight (due to friction) results in the reduction of the mass of the rocket.
According to the conservation of energy:
Total energy = Potential energy + Kinetic energy
= mgh + (1/2)mv2
The reduction in the rocket’s mass causes a drop in the total energy. Therefore, the heat energy required for the burning is obtained from the rocket.

(b) Gravitational force is a conservative force. Since the work done by a conservative force over a closed path is zero, the work done by the gravitational force over every complete orbit of a comet is zero.

(c) When an artificial satellite, orbiting around earth, moves closer to earth, its potential energy decreases because of the reduction in the height. Since the total energy of the system remains constant, the reduction in P.E. results in an increase in K.E. Hence, the velocity of the satellite increases. However, due to atmospheric friction, the total energy of the satellite decreases by a small amount.

(d)  Work done in fig 6.13 (i)
Mass, m = 15 kg
Displacement, s = 2 m
Work done, W = Fs Cosθ
Where, θ = Angle between force and displacement
= mgs Cosθ = 15 × 2 × 9.8 Cos 900
= 0

Work done in fig 6.13 (ii)
Mass, m = 15 kg
Displacement, s = 2 m
Here, the direction of the force applied on the rope and the direction of the displacement of the rope are same.
Therefore, the angle between them, θ = 0°
Since cos 0° = 1
Work done, W = Fs cosθ = mgs
= 15 × 9.8 × 2 = 294 J

Hence, more work is done in the Fig. 6.13 (ii).

6.6. Underline the correct alternative:
(a) When a conservative force does positive work on a body, the potential energy of the body increases/decreases/remains unaltered.
(b) Work done by a body against friction always results in a loss of its kinetic/potential energy.
(c) The rate of change of total momentum of a many-particle system is proportional to the external force/sum of the internal forces on the system.
(d) In an inelastic collision of two bodies, the quantities which do not change after the collision are the total kinetic energy/total linear momentum/total energy of the system of two bodies.

Answer

(a) Decreases
A conservative force does a positive work on a body when it displaces the body in the direction of force. As a result, the body advances toward the centre of force. It decreases the separation between the two, thereby decreasing the potential energy of the body.

(b) Kinetic energy
The work done against the direction of friction reduces the velocity of a body. Hence, there is a loss of kinetic energy of the body.

(c) External force
Internal forces, irrespective of their direction, cannot produce any change in the total momentum of a body. Hence, the total momentum of a many- particle system is proportional to the external forces acting on the system.

(d) Total linear momentum
The total linear momentum always remains conserved whether it is an elastic collision or an inelastic collision.

6.7. State if each of the following statements is true or false. Give reasons for your answer.
(a) In an elastic collision of two bodies, the momentum and energy of each body is conserved.
(b) Total energy of a system is always conserved, no matter what internal and external forces on the body are present.
(c) Work done in the motion of a body over a closed loop is zero for every force in nature.
(d) In an inelastic collision, the final kinetic energy is always less than the initial kinetic energy of the system.

Answer

(a) False
In an elastic collision, the total energy and momentum of both the bodies, and not of each individual body, is conserved.

(b) False
The external forces on the body may cahnge the total energy of the body.

(c) False
The work done in the motion of a body over a closed loop is zero for a conservation force only.

(d) True
In an inelastic collision, the final kinetic energy is always less than the initial kinetic energy of the system. This is because in such collisions, there is always a loss of energy in the form of heat, sound, etc.

6.8. Answer carefully, with reasons:
(a) In an elastic collision of two billiard balls, is the total kinetic energy conserved during the short time of collision of the balls (i.e. when they are in contact)?
(b) Is the total linear momentum conserved during the short time of an elastic collision of two balls?
(c) What are the answers to (a) and (b) for an inelastic collision?
(d) If the potential energy of two billiard balls depends only on the separation distance between their centres, is the collision elastic or inelastic? (Note, we are talking here of potential energy corresponding to the force during collision, not gravitational potential energy).

Answer

(a) No
K.E. is not conserved during the given elastic collision, K.E. before and after collision is the same. Infact, during collision, K.E. of the balls gets converted into potential energy.

(b) Yes
In an elastic collision, the total linear momentum of the system always remains conserved.

(c) No; Yes
In an inelastic collision, there is always a loss of kinetic energy, i.e., the total kinetic energy of the billiard balls before collision will always be greater than that after collision.
The total linear momentum of the system of billiards balls will remain conserved even in the case of an inelastic collision.

(d)Elastic
In the given case, the forces involved are conservation. This is because they depend on the separation between the centres of the billiard balls. Hence, the collision is elastic.

Page No: 136

6.9. A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one-dimensional motion with constant acceleration. The power delivered to it at time t is proportional to
(i) t1/2   (ii) t   (iii) t3/2  (iv) t2

Answer

From,
v = u + at
v = 0 + at = at
As power, P = F × v
P = (ma× at = ma2t
As m and a are constants, therefore, P t
Hence, right choice is (ii) t

6.10. A body is moving unidirectionally under the influence of a source of constant power. Its displacement in time t is proportional to
(i) t1/2   (ii) t   (iii) t3/2  (iv) t2

Answer

As power, P = force × velocity
P = [MLT-2] [LT-1] = [ML2T-3]
As, P = [ML2T-3
= constant  
L2T-3 = constant 
or, L2/T3 = constant
L2T3
or, LT3/2
Hence, right choice is (iii) t3/2

6.11. A body constrained to move along the z-axis of a coordinate system is subject to a constant force F given by



Where i, j, k are unit vectors along the x-, y- and z-axis of the system respectively. What is the work done by this force in moving the body a distance of 4 m along the z-axis?

Answer












6.12. An electron and a proton are detected in a cosmic ray experiment, the first with kinetic energy 10 keV, and the second with 100 keV. Which is faster, the electron or the proton? Obtain the ratio of their speeds. (electron mass = 9.11 × 10–31kg, proton mass = 1.67 × 10–27kg, 1 eV = 1.60 × 10–19J).

Answer

Electron is faster; Ratio of speeds is 13.54 : 1
Mass of the electron, me= 9.11 × 10–31kg
Mass of the proton, mp= 1.67 × 10– 27 kg
Kinetic energy of the electron, EKe= 10 keV = 104eV
= 104× 1.60 × 10–19
= 1.60 × 10–15J
Kinetic energy of the proton, EKp= 100 keV = 105eV = 1.60 × 10–14J
For the velocity of an electron ve, its kinetic energy is given by the relation:
EKe = (1/2) mve2
∴ ve = (2EKe / m)1/2
= (2 × 1.60 × 10-15 / 9.11 × 10-31)1/2  =  5.93 × 107 m/s
For the velocity of a proton vp, its kinetic energy is given by the relation:
EKp = (1/2)mvp2
vp = (2 × 1.6 × 10-14 / 1.67 × 10-27 )1/2  =  4.38 × 106 m/s
Hence, the electron is moving faster than the proton.
The ratio of their speeds
ve / vp = 5.93 × 107 / 4.38 × 106  =  13.54 : 1

6.13. A rain drop of radius 2 mm falls from a height of 500 m above the ground. It falls with decreasing acceleration (due to viscous resistance of the air) until at half its original height, it attains its maximum (terminal) speed, and moves with uniform speed thereafter. What is the work done by the gravitational force on the drop in the first and second half of its journey? What is the work done by the resistive force in the entire journey if its speed on reaching the ground is 10 m s–1?

Answer

Radius of the rain drop, r= 2 mm = 2 × 10–3m
Volume of the rain drop, V = (4/3)πr3
= (4/3) × 3.14 × (2 × 10-3)3 m-3
Density of water, ρ= 103kg m–3
Mass of the rain drop, m= ρV
= (4/3) × 3.14 × (2 × 10-3)3 × 103 kg
Gravitational force, F = mg
= (4/3) × 3.14 × (2 × 10-3)3 × 103 × 9.8  N
The work done by the gravitational force on the drop in the first half of its journey:
WI= Fs
= (4/3) × 3.14 × (2 × 10-3)3 × 103 × 9.8 × 250  =  0.082 J
This amount of work is equal to the work done by the gravitational force on the drop in the second half of its journey, i.e., WII, = 0.082 J
As per the law of conservation of energy, if no resistive force is present, then the total energy of the rain drop will remain the same.
∴Total energy at the top:
ET= mgh + 0
= (4/3) × 3.14 × (2 × 10-3)3 × 103 × 9.8 × 500 × 10-5
= 0.164 J
Due to the presence of a resistive force, the drop hits the ground with a velocity of 10 m/s.
∴Total energy at the ground:
EG = (1/2) mv2 + 0
= (1/2) × (4/3) × 3.14 × (2 × 10-3)3 × 103 × 9.8 × (10)2
= 1.675 × 10-3 J
∴Resistive force = EG ET= –0.162 J

6.14. A molecule in a gas container hits a horizontal wall with speed 200 m s–1and angle 30° with the normal, and rebounds with the same speed. Is momentum conserved in the collision? Is the collision elastic or inelastic?

Answer

The momentum of the gas molecule remains conserved whether the collision is elastic or inelastic.
The gas molecule moves with a velocity of 200 m/s and strikes the stationary wall of the container, rebounding with the same speed.
It shows that the rebound velocity of the wall remains zero. Hence, the total kinetic energy of the molecule remains conserved during the collision. The given collision is an example of an elastic collision.

6.15. A pump on the ground floor of a building can pump up water to fill a tank of volume 30 m3in 15 min. If the tank is 40 m above the ground, and the efficiency of the pump is 30%, how much electric power is consumed by the pump?

Answer

Volume of the tank, V= 30 m3
Time of operation, t= 15 min = 15 × 60 = 900 s
Height of the tank, h= 40 m
Efficiency of the pump, η = 30 %
Density of water, ρ= 103kg/m3
Mass of water, m= ρV= 30 × 103 kg
Output power can be obtained as:
P0 = Work done / Time  = mgh / t
= 30 × 103 × 9.8 × 40 / 900  =  13.067 × 103 W
For input power Pi,, efficiency η, is given by the relation: 
η = P0 / Pi  =  30%
Pi = 13.067 × 100 × 103  / 30
= 0.436 × 105 W  =  43.6 kW

6.16. Two identical ball bearings in contact with each other and resting on a frictionless table are hit head-on by another ball bearing of the same mass moving initially with a speed V. If the collision is elastic, which of the following figure is a possible result after collision?
Answer

It can be observed that the total momentum before and after collision in each case is constant.
For an elastic collision, the total kinetic energy of a system remains conserved before and after collision.
For mass of each ball bearing m, we can write:
Total kinetic energy of the system before collision:
= (1/2)mV2 + (1/2)(2m) × 02
= (1/2)mV2

Case(i)
Total kinetic energy of the system after collision:
= (1/2) m × 0 + (1/2) (2m) (V/2)2
= (1/4)mV2
Hence, the kinetic energy of the system is not conserved in case (i).

Case(ii)
Total kinetic energy of the system after collision:
= (1/2)(2m) × 0 + (1/2)mV2
= (1/2) mV2
Hence, the kinetic energy of the system is conserved in case (ii).

Case(iii)
Total kinetic energy of the system after collision:
= (1/2)(3m)(V/3)2
= (1/6)mV2
Hence, the kinetic energy of the system is not conserved in case (iii).

Hence, Case II is the only possibility.

Page No: 137

6.17. The bob A of a pendulum released from 30° to the vertical hits another bob B of the same mass at rest on a table as shown in Fig. 6.15. How high does the bob A rise after the collision? Neglect the size of the bobs and assume the collision to be elastic.
Answer

The bob A will not rise because when two bodies of same mass undergo an elastic collision, their velocities are interchanged. After collision, ball A will come to rest and the ball B would move with the velocity of A, Fig. 6.15. Thus the bob A will not rise after the collision.

6.18. he bob of a pendulum is released from a horizontal position. If the length of the pendulum is 1.5 m, what is the speed with which the bob arrives at the lowermost point, given that it dissipated 5% of its initial energy against air resistance?

Answer

Length of the pendulum, l = 1.5 m
Mass of the bob = m
Energy dissipated = 5%
According to the law of conservation of energy, the total energy of the system remains constant.
At the horizontal position:
Potential energy of the bob, EP = mgl
Kinetic energy of the bob, EK = 0
Total energy = mgl (i)
At the lowermost point (mean position):
Potential energy of the bob, EP = 0
Kinetic energy of the bob, EK = (1/2)mv2
Total energy Ex = (1/2)mv2   ....(ii)
As the bob moves from the horizontal position to the lowermost point, 5% of its energy gets dissipated.
The total energy at the lowermost point is equal to 95% of the total energy at the horizontal point, i.e.,
(1/2)mv2 = (95/100) mgl
∴  v = (2 × 95 × 1.5 × 9.8 / 100)1/2
= 5.28 m/s

6.19. A trolley of mass 300 kg carrying a sandbag of 25 kg is moving uniformly with a speed of 27 km/h on a frictionless track. After a while, sand starts leaking out of a hole on the floor of the trolley at the rate of 0.05 kg s–1. What is the speed of the trolley after the entire sand bag is empty?

Answer

As the trolley carrying the sand bag is moving uniformly, therefore, external force on the system = 0.
When the sand leaks out, it does not lead to the application of any external force on the trolley. Hence, the speed of the trolley shall not change.

6.20. A body of mass 0.5 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = ax3/2 where a = 5 m1/2 s-1. What is the work done by the net force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 2 m?

Answer

Mass of the body, m= 0.5 kg
Velocity of the body is governed by the equation, v = ax3/2 and a = 5 m1/2 s-1
Initial velocity, u (atx = 0) = 0
Final velocity v (atx = 2 m) = 102 m/s
Work done, W = Change in kinetic energy
= (1/2) m (v2 - u2)
= (1/2) × 0.5 [ (102)2 - 02]
= (1/2) × 0.5 × 10 × 10 × 2
= 50 J

6.21. The blades of a windmill sweep out a circle of area A. (a) If the wind flows at a velocity v perpendicular to the circle, what is the mass of the air passing through it in time t?(b) What is the kinetic energy of the air? (c) Assume that the windmill converts 25% of the wind’s energy into electrical energy, and that A = 30 m2, v = 36 km/h and the density of air is 1.2 kg m–3. What is the electrical power produced?

Answer

Area of the circle swept by the windmill = A
Velocity of the wind = v
Density of air = ρ

(a) Volume of the wind flowing through the windmill per sec = Av
Mass of the wind flowing through the windmill per sec = ρAv
Mass m, of the wind flowing through the windmill in time t= ρAvt

(b) Kinetic energy of air = (1/2) mv2
= (1/2) (ρAvt)v2 = (1/2)ρAv3t

(c) Area of the circle swept by the windmill = A = 30 m2
Velocity of the wind = v= 36 km/h
Density of air, ρ= 1.2 kg m–3
Electric energy produced = 25% of the wind energy
= (25/100) × Kinetic energy of air
= (1/8) ρA v3t
Electrical power = Electrical energy / Time
= (1/8)ρA v3t / t
= (1/8) ρAv3
= (1/8) × 1.2 × 30 × (10)3
= 4.5 kW

6.22. A person trying to lose weight (dieter) lifts a 10 kg mass, one thousand times, to a height of 0.5 m each time. Assume that the potential energy lost each time she lowers the mass is dissipated. (a) How much work does she do against the gravitational force? (b) Fat supplies 3.8 × 107 J of energy per kilogram which is converted to mechanical energy with a 20% efficiency rate. How much fat will the dieter use up?

Answer

(a)Mass of the weight, m = 10 kg
Height to which the person lifts the weight, h = 0.5 m
Number of times the weight is lifted, n = 1000
∴Work done against gravitational force:
= n(mgh)
= 1000 × 10 × 9.8 × 0.5  =  49 kJ

(b)Energy equivalent of 1 kg of fat = 3.8 × 107 J
Efficiency rate = 20%
Mechanical energy supplied by the person’s body:
= (20/100) × 3.8 × 107 J
= (1/5) × 3.8 × 107 J
Equivalent mass of fat lost by the dieter:
= [ 1 / (1/5) × 3.8 × 107 ]× 49 × 103
= (245 / 3.8) × 10-4 = 6.45 × 10-3 kg

6.23. A family uses 8 kW of power. (a) Direct solar energy is incident on the horizontal surface at an average rate of 200 W per square meter. If 20% of this energy can be converted to useful electrical energy, how large an area is needed to supply 8 kW? (b) Compare this area to that of the roof of a typical house.

Answer

(a)Power used by the family, P = 8 kW = 8 × 103 W
Solar energy received per square metre = 200 W
Efficiency of conversion from solar to electricity energy = 20 %
Area required to generate the desired electricity = A
As per the information given in the question, we have:
8 × 103 = 20% × (A × 200)
= (20 /100) × A × 200
A = 8 × 103 / 40  =  200 m2

(b)The area of a solar plate required to generate 8 kW of electricity is almost equivalent to the area of the roof of a building having dimensions 14 m × 14 m. (≈ 200).

Additional Excercises
6.24. A bullet of mass 0.012 kg and horizontal speed 70 m s–1strikes a block of wood of mass 0.4 kg and instantly comes to rest with respect to the block. The block is suspended from the ceiling by means of thin wires. Calculate the height to which the block rises. Also, estimate the amount of heat produced in the block.

Answer

Mass of the bullet, m= 0.012 kg
Initial speed of the bullet, ub= 70 m/s
Mass of the wooden block, M= 0.4 kg
Initial speed of the wooden block, uB= 0
Final speed of the system of the bullet and the block = ν
Applying the law of conservation of momentum:
mub + MuB = (m + M) v
0.012 × 70 + 0.4 × 0 = (0.012 + 0.4) v
v = 0.84 / 0.412 = 2.04 m/s
For the system of the bullet and the wooden block:
Mass of the system, m' = 0.412 kg
Velocity of the system = 2.04 m/s
Height up to which the system rises = h
Applying the law of conservation of energy to this system:
Potential energy at the highest point = Kinetic energy at the lowest point
m'gh = (1/2)m'v2
h = (1/2)(v2 / g)
= (1/2) × (2.04)2 / 9.8
= 0.2123 m
The wooden block will rise to a height of 0.2123 m.
Heat produced = Kinetic energy of the bullet – Kinetic energy of the system
= (1/2) mu2 - (1/2) m'v2 = (1/2) × 0.012 × (70)2 - (1/2) × 0.412 × (2.04)2
= 29.4 - 0.857 = 28.54 J

6.25. Two inclined frictionless tracks, one gradual and the other steep meet at A from where two stones are allowed to slide down from rest, one on each track (Fig. 6.16). Will the stones reach the bottom at the same time? Will they reach there with the same speed? Explain. Given θ1= 30°, θ2= 60°, and h = 10 m, what are the speeds and times taken by the two stones?
Answer

The given situation can be shown as in the following figure:

AB and AC are two smooth planes inclined to the horizontal at ∠θ1 and ∠θ2 respectively. As height of both the planes is the same, therefore, noth the stones will reach the bottom with same speed.
As P.E. at O = K.E. at A = K.E. at B
mgh = 1/2 mv12 = 1/2 mv22
v1 = v2
As it is clear from fig. above, accleration of the two blocks are a1 = g sin θ1 and a2 = g sin θ2
As θ2> θ1
a2> a1
From v = u + at = 0 + at
or, t = v/a
As t ∝ 1/a, and a2> a1
t2< t1
i.e., Second stone will take lesser time and reach the bottom earlier than the first stone.

Page No: 138

6.26. A 1 kg block situated on a rough incline is connected to a spring of spring constant 100 N m–1as shown in Fig. 6.17. The block is released from rest with the spring in the unstretched position. The block moves 10 cm down the incline before coming to rest. Find the coefficient of friction between the block and the incline. Assume that the spring has a negligible mass and the pulley is frictionless.
Answer

Mass of the block, m= 1 kg
Spring constant, k= 100 N m–1
Displacement in the block, x= 10 cm = 0.1 m
The given situation can be shown as in the following figure.
At equilibrium:
Normal reaction, R= mg cos37°
Frictional force, f = μ R = mg Sin 370
Where, μ is the coefficient of friction
Net force acting on the block = mg sin 37° – f
= mgsin 37° – μmgcos 37°
= mg(sin37° – μcos 37°)
At equilibrium, the work done by the block is equal to the potential energy of the spring, i.e.,
mg(sin37° – μcos 37°)x = (1/2)kx2
1 × 9.8 (Sin 370 - μcos 37°) = (1/2) × 100 × (0.1)
0.602 - μ × 0.799 = 0.510
∴ μ = 0.092 / 0.799  =  0.115

6.27. A bolt of mass 0.3 kg falls from the ceiling of an elevator moving down with an uniform speed of 7 m s–1. It hits the floor of the elevator (length of the elevator = 3 m) and does not rebound. What is the heat produced by the impact? Would your answer be different if the elevator were stationary?

Answer

Mass of the bolt, m= 0.3 kg
Speed of the elevator = 7 m/s
Height, h = 3 m
Since the relative velocity of the bolt with respect to the lift is zero, at the time of impact, potential energy gets converted into heat energy.
Heat produced = Loss of potential energy
= mgh = 0.3 × 9.8 × 3
= 8.82 J
The heat produced will remain the same even if the lift is stationary. This is because of the fact that the relative velocity of the bolt with respect to the lift will remain zero.

6.28. A trolley of mass 200 kg moves with a uniform speed of 36 km/h on a frictionless track. A child of mass 20 kg runs on the trolley from one end to the other (10 m away) with a speed of 4 m s–1relative to the trolley in a direction opposite to the its motion, and jumps out of the trolley. What is the final speed of the trolley? How much has the trolley moved from the time the child begins to run?

Answer

Mass of the trolley, M= 200 kg
Speed of the trolley, v= 36 km/h = 10 m/s
Mass of the boy, m= 20 kg
Initial momentum of the system of the boy and the trolley
= (M+ m)v
= (200 + 20) × 10
= 2200 kg m/s
Let v' be the final velocity of the trolley with respect to the ground.
Final velocity of the boy with respect to the ground = v' - 4
Final momentum = Mv' + m(v' - 4)
= 200v' + 20v' - 80
= 220v' – 80
As per the law of conservation of momentum:
Initial momentum = Final momentum
2200 = 220v' – 80
∴ v' = 2280 / 220 = 10.36 m/s
Length of the trolley, l= 10 m
Speed of the boy, v'' = 4 m/s
Time taken by the boy to run, t = 10/4 = 2.5 s
∴ Distance moved by the trolley = v'' × t = 10.36 × 2.5 = 25.9 m

6.29. Which of the following potential energy curves in Fig. 6.18 cannot possibly describe the elastic collision of two billiard balls? Here r is the distance between centres of the balls.
Answer

The potential energy of a system of two masses is inversely proportional to the separation between them. In the given case, the potential energy of the system of the two balls will decrease as they come closer to each other. It will become zero (i.e., V(r) = 0) when the two balls touch each other, i.e., at r = 2R, where R is the radius of each billiard ball. The potential energy curves given in figures (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), and (vi) do not satisfy these two conditions. Hence, they do not describe the elastic collisions between them.

6.30. Show that the two-body decay of this type must necessarily give an electron of fixed energy and, therefore, cannot account for the observed continuous energy distribution in the β-decay of a neutron or a nucleus (Fig. 6.19).
[Note: The simple result of this exercise was one among the several arguments advanced by W. Pauli to predict the existence of a third particle in the decay products of β-decay. This particle is known as neutrino. We now know that it is a particle of intrinsic spin ½ (like e, p or n), but is neutral, and either massless or having an extremely small mass (compared to the mass of electron) and which interacts very weakly with matter. The correct decay process of neutron is: n p + e+ ν]

Answer

The decay process of free neutron at rest is given as:
n p + e
From Einstein’s mass-energy relation, we have the energy of electron as Δmc2
Where,
Δm= Mass defect = Mass of neutron – (Mass of proton + Mass of electron)
c = Speed of light

Δmand c are constants. Hence, the given two-body decay is unable to explain the continuous energy distribution in the β-decay of a neutron or a nucleus. The presence of neutrino νon the LHS of the decay correctly explains the continuous energy distribution.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 7 System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Physics

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 7 System Of Particles And Rotational Motion Physics Science

Page No: 178

Excercises

7.1. Give the location of the centre of mass of a (i) sphere, (ii) cylinder, (iii) ring, and (iv) cube, each of uniform mass density. Does the centre of mass of a body necessarily lie inside the body?

Answer

In all the four cases, as the mass density is uniform, centreof mass is located at their respective geometrical centres.
No, it is not necessary that the centre of mass of a body should lie on the body. For example, in case of a circular ring, centre of mass is at the centre of the ring, where there is no mass.

7.2. In the HCl molecule, the separation between the nuclei of the two atoms is about 1.27 Å (1 Å = 10–10 m). Find the approximate location of the CM of the molecule, given that a chlorine atom is about 35.5 times as massive as a hydrogen atom and nearly all the mass of an atom is concentrated in its nucleus.

Answer

Distance between H and Cl atoms = 1.27 Å
Mass of H atom = m
Mass of Cl atom = 35.5m
Let the centre of mass of the system lie at a distance xfrom the Cl atom.
Distance of the centre of mass from the H atom = (1.27 – x)

Let us assume that the centre of mass of the given molecule lies at the origin. Therefore, we can have:
[m(1.27 – x) + 35.5mx] / (m + 35.5m)  =  0
m(1.27 – x) + 35.5mx =  0
1.27 - x = -35.5x
x = -1.27 / (35.5 - 1)  =  -0.037 Å
Here, the negative sign indicates that the centre of mass lies at the left of the molecule. Hence, the centre of mass of the HCl molecule lies 0.037Å from the Cl atom.

7.3. A child sits stationary at one end of a long trolley moving uniformly with a speed V on a smooth horizontal floor. If the child gets up and runs about on the trolley in any manner, what is the speed of the CM of the (trolley + child) system?

Answer

The child is running arbitrarily on a trolley moving with velocity v. However, the running of the child will produce no effect on the velocity of the centre of mass of the trolley. This is because the force due to the boy’s motion is purely internal. Internal forces produce no effect on the motion of the bodies on which they act. Since no external force is involved in the boy–trolley system, the boy’s motion will produce no change in the velocity of the centre of mass of the trolley.

7.4. Show that the area of the triangle contained between the vectors a and b is one half of the magnitude of a× b.

Answer

Consider two vectors OK = vector |a| and OM = vector |b|, inclined at an angle θ, as shown in the following figure.
7.5. Show that a. (b× c) is equal in magnitude to the volume of the parallelepiped formed on the three vectors, a, b and c.

Answer

A parallelepiped with origin O and sides a, b, and c is shown in the following figure.


7.6. Find the components along the x, y, z axes of the angular momentum l of a particle, whose position vector is r with components x, y, z and momentum is p with components px, py and pz. Show that if the particle moves only in the x-yplane the angular momentum has only a z-component.

Answer


7.7. Two particles, each of mass m and speed v, travel in opposite directions along parallel lines separated by a distance d. Show that the vector angular momentum of the two particle system is the same whatever be the point about which the angular momentum is taken.

Answer

Let at a certain instant two particles be at points P and Q, as shown in the following figure.
Angular momentum of the system about point P:
Lp = mv × 0 + mv × d  =  mvd  ...(i)
Angular momentum of the system about point Q:
LQ = mv × d + mv × 0   =  mvd  ....(ii)

Consider a point R, which is at a distance yfrom point Q, i.e.,
QR = y
∴ PR = d – y
Angular momentum of the system about point R:
LR = mv × (d - y) + mv × y
mvd - mvy + mvy
= mvd  ....(iii)
Comparing equations (i), (ii), and (iii), we get:
LP = LQ = LR   ...(iv)

We infer from equation (iv)that the angular momentum of a system does not depend on the point about which it is taken.

7.8. A non-uniform bar of weight W is suspended at rest by two strings of negligible weight as shown in Fig.7.39. The angles made by the strings with the vertical are 36.9° and 53.1° respectively. The bar is 2 m long. Calculate the distance d of the centre of gravity of the bar from its left end.
Answer

The free body diagram of the bar is shown in the following figure.
Length of the bar, l= 2 m
T1 and T2are the tensions produced in the left and right strings respectively.

At translational equilibrium, we have:
T1Sin 36.90 = T2Sin 53.10
T1 / T2 = 4 / 3
T1 = (4/3) T2
For rotational equilibrium, on taking the torque about the centre of gravity, we have:
T1 (Cos 36.9) × d = T2Cos 53.1 (2 - d)
T1 × 0.800 d = T2 × 0.600 (2 - d)
(4/3) × T2 × 0.800d = T2 (0.600 × 2 - 0.600d)
1.067d + 0.6d = 1.2
d = 1.2 / 1.67
= 0.72 m
Hence, the C.G. (centre of gravity) of the given bar lies 0.72 m from its left end.

7.9. A car weighs 1800 kg. The distance between its front and back axles is 1.8 m. Its centre of gravity is 1.05 m behind the front axle. Determine the force exerted by the level ground on each front wheel and each back wheel.

Answer

Mass of the car, m= 1800 kg
Distance between the front and back axles, d= 1.8 m
Distance between the C.G. (centre of gravity) and the back axle = 1.05 m
The various forces acting on the car are shown in the following figure.
Rfand Rbare the forces exerted by the level ground on the front and back wheels respectively.
At translational equilibrium:
Rf + Rb = mg
= 1800 × 9.8
= 17640 N   ....(i)
For rotational equilibrium, on taking the torque about the C.G., we have:
Rf(1.05) = Rb(1.8 - 1.05)
Rb / Rf  =  7 / 5
Rb = 1.4 Rf   ......(ii)
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get:
1.4Rf + Rf = 17640
Rf = 7350 N
∴ Rb= 17640 – 7350 = 10290 N
Therefore, the force exerted on each front wheel = 7350 / 2  =  3675 N, and
The force exerted on each back wheel = 10290 / 2  =  5145 N

7.10. (a) Find the moment of inertia of a sphere about a tangent to the sphere, given the moment of inertia of the sphere about any of its diameters to be 2MR2/5, where M is the mass of the sphere and R is the radius of the sphere.
(b) Given the moment of inertia of a disc of mass M and radius R about any of its diameters to be MR2/4, find its moment of inertia about an axis normal to the disc and passing through a point on its edge.

Answer

(a) The moment of inertia (M.I.) of a sphere about its diameter = 2MR2/5
According to the theorem of parallel axes, the moment of inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the sum of the moment of inertia of the body about a parallel axis passing through its centre of mass and the product of its mass and the square of the distance between the two parallel axes.
The M.I. about a tangent of the sphere = 2MR2/5 + MR =  7MR2 / 5

(b) The moment of inertia of a disc about its diameter = MR2 / 4
According to the theorem of perpendicular axis, the moment of inertia of a planar body (lamina) about an axis perpendicular to its plane is equal to the sum of its moments of inertia about two perpendicular axes concurrent with perpendicular axis and lying in the plane of the body.
The M.I. of the disc about its centre = MR2 / 4 + MR2 / 4  =  MR2 / 2
The situation is shown in the given figure.
Applying the theorem of parallel axes:
The moment of inertia about an axis normal to the disc and passing through a point on its edge
 = MR2 / 2 + MR2 = 3MR2 / 2

Page No: 179

7.11. Torques of equal magnitude are applied to a hollow cylinder and a solid sphere, both having the same mass and radius. The cylinder is free to rotate about its standard axis of symmetry, and the sphere is free to rotate about an axis passing through its centre. Which of the two will acquire a greater angular speed after a given time?

Answer

Let m and r be the respective masses of the hollow cylinder and the solid sphere.
 The moment of inertia of the hollow cylinder about its standard axis, I1 = mr2
The moment of inertia of the solid sphere about an axis passing through its centre, I2 = (2/5)mr2
We have the relation:
τ = Iα
Where,
α = Angular acceleration
τ = Torque
I = Moment of inertia
For the hollow cylinder, τ1 = I1α1

For the solid sphere, τn = Inαn

As an equal torque is applied to both the bodies, τ1 = τ2
α2 / α1  =  I1  /  I2  =  mr2  /  (2/5)mr2
α2> α1    ...(i)
Now, using the relation:
ω = ω0 + αt
Where,
ω0 = Initial angular velocity
t = Time of rotation
ω = Final angular velocity
For equal ω0 and t, we have:
ω α(ii)
From equations (i) and (ii), we can write:
ω2> ω1
Hence, the angular velocity of the solid sphere will be greater than that of the hollow cylinder.

7.12. A solid cylinder of mass 20 kg rotates about its axis with angular speed 100 rad s–1. The radius of the cylinder is 0.25 m. What is the kinetic energy associated with the rotation of the cylinder? What is the magnitude of angular momentum of the cylinder about its axis?

Answer

Mass of the cylinder, m= 20 kg
Angular speed, ω= 100 rad s–1
Radius of the cylinder, r= 0.25 m
The moment of inertia of the solid cylinder:
I = mr2 / 2
= (1/2) × 20 × (0.25)2
= 0.625 kg m2
∴ Kinetic energy = (1/2) I ω2
= (1/2) × 6.25 × (100)2 = 3125 J
∴Angular momentum, L=
= 6.25 × 100
= 62.5 Js

7.13. (a) A child stands at the centre of a turntable with his two arms outstretched. The turntable is set rotating with an angular speed of 40 rev/min. How much is the angular speed of the child if he folds his hands back and thereby reduces his moment of inertia to 2/5 times the initial value? Assume that the turntable rotates without friction.
(b) Show that the child’s new kinetic energy of rotation is more than the initial kinetic energy of rotation. How do you account for this increase in kinetic energy?

Answer

(a) 100 rev/min
Initial angular velocity, ω1= 40 rev/min
Final angular velocity = ω2
The moment of inertia of the boy with stretched hands = I1
The moment of inertia of the boy with folded hands = I2
The two moments of inertia are related as:
I2 = (2/5) I1
Since no external force acts on the boy, the angular momentum Lis a constant.
Hence, for the two situations, we can write:
I2ω2  =  I1ω1
ω2 = (I1/I2) ω1
= [I1 / (2/5)I1] × 40  =  (5/2) × 40  =  100 rev/min

(b) Final K.E. = 2.5 Initial K.E.
Final kinetic rotation, EF = (1/2) I2ω22
Initial kinetic rotation, EI =  (1/2) I1ω12
EF / EI = (1/2) I2ω22 / (1/2) I1ω12
= (2/5) I1 (100)2 / I1 (40)2
= 2.5
EF = 2.5 E1
The increase in the rotational kinetic energy is attributed to the internal energy of the boy.

7.14. A rope of negligible mass is wound round a hollow cylinder of mass 3 kg and radius 40 cm. What is the angular acceleration of the cylinder if the rope is pulled with a force of 30 N? What is the linear acceleration of the rope? Assume that there is no slipping.

Answer

Mass of the hollow cylinder, m= 3 kg
Radius of the hollow cylinder, r= 40 cm = 0.4 m
Applied force, F = 30 N
The moment of inertia of the hollow cylinder about its geometric axis:
I= mr2
= 3 × (0.4)2= 0.48 kg m2
Torque, τ = F × r  =  30 × 0.4  = 12 Nm
For angular acceleration α, torque is also given by the relation:
τ = Iα
α = τ / I  =  12 / 0.48  = 25 rad s-2
Linear acceleration = τα= 0.4 × 25 = 10 m s–2

7.15. To maintain a rotor at a uniform angular speed of 200 rad s–1, an engine needs to transmit a torque of 180 Nm. What is the power required by the engine?
(Note: uniform angular velocity in the absence of friction implies zero torque. In practice, applied torque is needed to counter frictional torque). Assume that the engine is 100 % efficient.

Answer

Angular speed of the rotor, ω = 200 rad/s
Torque required, τ = 180 Nm
The power of the rotor (P) is related to torque and angular speed by the relation:
P = τω
= 180 × 200 = 36 × 103
= 36 kW
Hence, the power required by the engine is 36 kW.

7.16. From a uniform disk of radius R, a circular hole of radius R/2 is cut out. The centre of the hole is at R/2 from the centre of the original disc. Locate the centre of gravity of the resulting flat body.

Answer

R/6; from the original centre of the body and opposite to the centre of the cut portion.
Mass per unit area of the original disc = σ
Radius of the original disc = R
Mass of the original disc, M = πR2σ
The disc with the cut portion is shown in the following figure:
Radius of the smaller disc = R/2
Mass of the smaller disc, M = π (R/2)2σ = π R2σ / 4  =  M / 4
Let O and O′ be the respective centres of the original disc and the disc cut off from the original. As per the definition of the centre of mass, the centre of mass of the original disc is supposed to be concentrated at O, while that of the smaller disc is supposed to be concentrated at O′.
It is given that:
OO′= R/2
After the smaller disc has been cut from the original, the remaining portion is considered to be a system of two masses. The two masses are:
M (concentrated at O), and –M′ (=M/4) concentrated at O′
(The negative sign indicates that this portion has been removed from the original disc.)
Let x be the distance through which the centre of mass of the remaining portion shifts from point O.
The relation between the centres of masses of two masses is given as:
x = (m1r1 + m2r2/  (m1 + m2)
For the given system, we can write:
x = [M × 0 - M' × (R/2) ]/  (M + (-M') )  =  -R / 6
(The negative sign indicates that the centre of mass gets shifted toward the left of point O.)

7.17. A metre stick is balanced on a knife edge at its centre. When two coins, each of mass 5 g are put one on top of the other at the 12.0 cm mark, the stick is found to be balanced at 45.0 cm. What is the mass of the metre stick?

Answer

Let W and W′ be the respective weights of the metre stick and the coin.
The mass of the metre stick is concentrated at its mid-point, i.e., at the 50 cm mark.
Mass of the meter stick = m
Mass of each coin, m= 5 g
When the coins are placed 12 cm away from the end P, the centre of mass gets shifted by 5 cm from point R toward the end P. The centre of mass is located at a distance of 45 cm from point P.
The net torque will be conserved for rotational equilibrium about point R.
10 × g(45 - 12) - m'g(50 - 45) = 0
m' = 66 g
Hence, the mass of the metre stick is 66 g.

7.18. A solid sphere rolls down two different inclined planes of the same heights but different angles of inclination. (a) Will it reach the bottom with the same speed in each case? (b) Will it take longer to roll down one plane than the other? (c) If so, which one and why?

Answer

(a) Mass of the sphere = m
Height of the plane = h
Velocity of the sphere at the bottom of the plane =v
At the top of the plane, the total energy of the sphere = Potential energy = mgh
At the bottom of the plane, the sphere has both translational and rotational kinetic energies.
Hence, total energy = (1/2)mv2 + (1/2) Iω2
Using the law of conservation of energy, we can write:
(1/2)mv2 + (1/2) Iω2 = mgh
For a solid sphere, the moment of inertia about its centre, I = (2/5)mr2
Hence, equation (i) becomes:
(1/2)mr2 + (1/2) [(2/5)mr22  =  mgh
(1/2)v2 + (1/5)r2ω2  =  gh
But we have the relation, v = rω
(1/2)v2 + (1/5)v2  =  gh
v2(7/10) = gh
v =   √(10/7)gh
Hence, the velocity of the sphere at the bottom depends only on height (h) and acceleration due to gravity (g). Both these values are constants. Therefore, the velocity at the bottom remains the same from whichever inclined plane the sphere is rolled.

(b) Consider two inclined planes with inclinations θ1 and θ2, related as:
θ1< θ2
The acceleration produced in the sphere when it rolls down the plane inclined at θ1is:
g sin θ1
The various forces acting on the sphere are shown in the following figure.
R1is the normal reaction to the sphere.
Similarly, the acceleration produced in the sphere when it rolls down the plane inclined at θ2is:
g sin θ2

The various forces acting on the sphere are shown in the following figure.

R2is the normal reaction to the sphere.
θ2> θ1; sin θ2> sin θ1 ... (i)
a2> a1 … (ii)
Initial velocity, u = 0
Final velocity, v= Constant
Using the first equation of motion, we can obtain the time of roll as:
v= u + at
t∝ (1/α)
For inclination θ1 : t1∝ (1/α1)
For inclination θ2 : t2∝ (1/α2)

From above equations, we get:
t2 < t1
Hence, the sphere will take a longer time to reach the bottom of the inclined plane having the smaller inclination.

7.19. A hoop of radius 2 m weighs 100 kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that its centre of mass has a speed of 20 cm/s. How much work has to be done to stop it?

Answer

Radius of the hoop, r= 2 m
Mass of the hoop, m= 100 kg
Velocity of the hoop, v= 20 cm/s = 0.2 m/s
Total energy of the hoop = Translational K.E. + Rotational K.E.
ET = (1/2)mv2 + (1/2) Iω2
Moment of inertia of the hoop about its centre, I = mr2
ET = (1/2)mv2 + (1/2) (mr2)ω2
But we have the relation, v = rω
ET = (1/2)mv2 + (1/2)mr2ω2
= (1/2)mv2 + (1/2)mv2 = mv2
The work required to be done for stopping the hoop is equal to the total energy of the hoop.
∴ Required work to be done, W= mv2 = 100 × (0.2)2 = 4 J.

7.20. The oxygen molecule has a mass of 5.30 × 10–26 kg and a moment of inertia of 1.94×10–46 kg m2 about an axis through its centre perpendicular to the lines joining the two atoms. Suppose the mean speed of such a molecule in a gas is 500 m/s and that its kinetic energy of rotation is two thirds of its kinetic energy of translation. Find the average angular velocity of the molecule.

Answer

Mass of an oxygen molecule, m= 5.30 × 10–26kg
Moment of inertia, I= 1.94 × 10–46kg m2
Velocity of the oxygen molecule, v= 500 m/s
The separation between the two atoms of the oxygen molecule = 2r
Mass of each oxygen atom = m/2
Hence, moment of inertia I, is calculated as:
(m/2)r2 + (m/2)r2 = mr2
r = ( I / m)1/2
(1.94 × 10-46 / 5.36 × 10-26 )1/2  =  0.60 × 10-10 m
It is given that:
KErot = (2/3)KEtrans
(1/2) I ω2 = (2/3) × (1/2) × mv2
mr2ω2 = (2/3)mv2
ω = (2/3)1/2 (v/r)
= (2/3)1/2 (500 / 0.6 × 10-10) = 6.80 × 1012 rad/s.

7.21. A solid cylinder rolls up an inclined plane of angle of inclination 30°. At the bottom of the inclined plane the centre of mass of the cylinder has a speed of 5 m/s.
(a) How far will the cylinder go up the plane?
(b) How long will it take to return to the bottom?

Answer

Initial velocity of the solid cylinder, v = 5 m/s
Angle of inclination, θ = 30°
Let the cylinder go up the plane upto a height h.
From, 1/2 mv2 + 1/2 I ω2 = mgh
1/2mv2 + 1/2 (1/2 mr2) ω2 = mgh
3/4 mv2 = mgh
h = 3v2/4g = 3 × 52/4 × 9.8 = 1.913 m

If s is the distance up the inclined plane, then as
sin θ = h/s
s = h/sin θ  = 1.913/sin 30° = 3.826 m

Time taken to return to the bottom

Additional Excercises

7.22. As shown in Fig.7.40, the two sides of a step ladder BA and CA are 1.6 m long and hinged at A. A rope DE, 0.5 m is tied half way up. A weight 40 kg is suspended from a point F, 1.2 m from B along the ladder BA. Assuming the floor to be frictionless and neglecting the weight of the ladder, find the tension in the rope and forces exerted by the floor on the ladder. (Take g = 9.8 m/s2)
(Hint: Consider the equilibrium of each side of the ladder separately.)
Answer

The given situation can be shown as:
NB = Force exerted on the ladder by the floor point B
NC = Force exerted on the ladder by the floor point C
T = Tension in the rope
BA = CA = 1.6 m
DE = 0. 5 m
BF = 1.2 m
Mass of the weight, m = 40 kg
Draw a perpendicular from A on the floor BC. This intersects DE at mid-point H.
ΔABI and ΔAIC are similar
∴BI = IC
Hence, I is the mid-point of BC.
DE || BC
BC = 2 × DE = 1 m
AF = BA – BF = 0.4 m … (i)
D is the mid-point of AB.
Hence, we can write:
AD = (1/2) × BA  =  0.8 m   ...(ii)
Using equations (i) and (ii), we get:
FE = 0.4 m
Hence, F is the mid-point of AD.
FG||DH and F is the mid-point of AD. Hence, G will also be the mid-point of AH.
ΔAFG and ΔADH are similar
∴ FG / DH  = AF / AD
FG / DH  =  0.4 / 0.8  =  1 / 2
FG = (1/2) DH
= (1/2) × 0.25  =  0.125 m

In ΔADH:
AH = (AD2 - DH2)1/2
= (0.82 - 0.252)1/2  =  0.76 m

For translational equilibrium of the ladder, the upward force should be equal to the downward force.
Nc + NB = mg = 392 … (iii)
For rotational equilibrium of the ladder, the net moment about A is:
-NB × BI + mg × FG + NC × CI + T × AG - T × AG  =  0
-NB × 0.5 + 40 × 9.8 × 0.125 + NC × 0.5  =  0
(NC - NB) × 0.5 = 49
NC - NB = 98   .....(iv)
Adding equations (iii) and (iv), we get:
NC = 245 N
NB = 147 N
For rotational equilibrium of the side AB, consider the moment about A.
-NB × BI + mg × FG + T × AG  =  0
-245 × 0.5 + 40 X 9.8 × 0.125 + T × 0.76  =  0
∴ T = 96.7 N.

Page No: 180

7.23. A man stands on a rotating platform, with his arms stretched horizontally holding a 5 kg weight in each hand. The angular speed of the platform is 30 revolutions per minute. The man then brings his arms close to his body with the distance of each weight from the axis changing from 90cm to 20cm. The moment of inertia of the man together with the platform may be taken to be constant and equal to 7.6 kg m2.
(a) What is his new angular speed? (Neglect friction.)
(b) Is kinetic energy conserved in the process? If not, from where does the change come about?

Answer

(a) Moment of inertia of the man-platform system = 7.6 kg m2
Moment of inertia when the man stretches his hands to a distance of 90 cm:
2 × mr2
= 2 × 5 × (0.9)2
= 8.1 kg m2
Initial moment of inertia of the system, Ii = 7.6 + 8.1 = 15.7 kg m2
Angular speed, ωi = 300 rev/min
Angular momentum, Li = Iiωi  =  15.7 × 30   ....(i)
Moment of inertia when the man folds his hands to a distance of 20 cm:
2 × mr2
= 2 × 5 (0.2)2= 0.4 kg m2
Final moment of inertia, If = 7.6 + 0.4 = 8 kg m2
Final angular speed = ωf
Final angular momentum, Lf = Ifωf = 0.79 ωf ...... (ii)
From the conservation of angular momentum, we have:
Iiωi  =  Ifωf
ωf = 15.7 × 30  / 8  =  58.88 rev/min

(b) Kinetic energy is not conserved in the given process. In fact, with the decrease in the moment of inertia, kinetic energy increases. The additional kinetic energy comes from the work done by the man to fold his hands toward himself.

7.24. A bullet of mass 10 g and speed 500 m/s is fired into a door and gets embedded exactly at the centre of the door. The door is 1.0 m wide and weighs 12 kg. It is hinged at one end and rotates about a vertical axis practically without friction. Find the angular speed of the door just after the bullet embeds into it.
(Hint: The moment of inertia of the door about the vertical axis at one end is ML2/3.)

Answer

Mass of the bullet, m= 10 g = 10 × 10–3kg
Velocity of the bullet, v= 500 m/s
Thickness of the door, L= 1 m
Radius of the door,r= m / 2
Mass of the door, M= 12 kg
Angular momentum imparted by the bullet on the door:
α =mvr
= (10 × 10-3 ) × (500) × (1/2)  =  2.5 kg m2 s-1   ...(i)
Moment of inertia of the door:
I = ML2 / 3
= (1/3) × 12 × 12 = 4 kgm2
But α = Iω
ω = α / I
= 2.5 / 4
= 0.625 rad s-1

7.25. Two discs of moments of inertia I1 and I2about their respective axes (normal to the disc and passing through the centre), and rotating with angular speeds ω1and ω2 are brought into contact face to face with their axes of rotation coincident. (a) What is the angular speed of the two-disc system? (b) Show that the kinetic energy of the combined system is less than the sum of the initial kinetic energies of the two discs. How do you account for this loss in energy? Take ω1≠ ω2.

Answer

(a) Moment of inertia of disc I = I1
Angular speed of disc I = ω1

Moment of inertia of disc I = I2
Angular speed of disc I = ω2
Angular momentum of disc I, L1 = I1ω1
Angular momentum of disc II, L2 = I2ω2
Total initial angular momentum Li = I1ω1 + I2ω2
When the two discs are joined together, their moments of inertia get added up.
Moment of inertia of the system of two discs, I = I1 + I2
Let ω be the angular speed of the system.
Total final angular momentum, LT = (I1 + I2) ω
Using the law of conservation of angular momentum, we have:
Li = LT
I1ω1 + I2ω2 = (I1 + I2)ω
ω = (I1ω1 + I2ω2) / (I1I2)

(b) Kinetic energy of disc I, E1 = (1/2) I1ω12
Kinetic energy of disc II, E1 = (1/2) I2ω22
Total initial kinetic energy, Ei = (1/2) ( I1ω12 + I2ω22)
When the discs are joined, their moments of inertia get added up.
Moment of inertia of the system, I = I1 + I2
Angular speed of the system = ω
Final kinetic energy Ef:  =  (1/2) ( I1 + I2) ω2
=  (1/2) ( I1 + I2) [(I1ω1 + I2ω2) / (I1I2) ]2
= (1/2) (I1ω1 + I2ω2)2 / (I1 + I2)
Ei - Ef
= (1/2) ( I1ω12 + I2ω22) - (1/2) (I1ω1 + I2ω2)2 / (I1 + I2)
Solving the equation, we get
= I1I2 (ω1 - ω2)2 / 2(I1 + I2)
All the quantities on RHS are positive
Ei - Ef> 0
Ei> Ef
The loss of KE can be attributed to the frictional force that comes into play when the two discs come in contact with each other.

7.26. (a) Prove the theorem of perpendicular axes.
(Hint: Square of the distance of a point (x, y) in the x–y plane from an axis through the origin perpendicular to the plane is x2 + y2).
(b) Prove the theorem of parallel axes.
(Hint: If the centre of mass is chosen to be the origin ∑ miri = 0).


Answer

(a) The theorem of perpendicular axes states that the moment of inertia of a planar body (lamina) about an axis perpendicular to its plane is equal to the sum of its moments of inertia about two perpendicular axes concurrent with perpendicular axis and lying in the plane of the body.
A physical body with centre O and a point mass m,in the xyplane at (x, y) is shown in the following figure.
Moment of inertia about x-axis, Ix= mx2
Moment of inertia about y-axis, Iy= my2
Moment of inertia about z-axis, Iz= m(x2 + y2)1/2

Ix+ Iy= mx2+ my2
= m(x2+ y2)
= m [(x2+ y2)1/2]1/2
Ix + Iy = Iz
Hence, the theorem is proved.

(b) The theorem of parallel axes states that the moment of inertia of a body about any axis is equal to the sum of the moment of inertia of the body about a parallel axis passing through its centre of mass and the product of its mass and the square of the distance between the two parallel axes.
Suppose a rigid body is made up of n particles, having masses m1, m2, m3, … , mn, at perpendicular distances r1, r2, r3, … , rn respectively from the centre of mass O of the rigid body.
The moment of inertia about axis RS passing through the point O:

7.27. Prove the result that the velocity v of translation of a rolling body (like a ring, disc, cylinder or sphere) at the bottom of an inclined plane of a height h is given by v2 = 2gh / [1 + (k2/R2) ]
Using dynamical consideration (i.e. by consideration of forces and torques). Note k is the radius of gyration of the body about its symmetry axis, and R is the radius of the body. The body starts from rest at the top of the plane.

Answer

A body rolling on an inclined plane of height h,is shown in the following figure:
m= Mass of the body
R = Radius of the body
K= Radius of gyration of the body
v = Translational velocity of the body
h =Height of the inclined plane
g = Acceleration due to gravity
Total energy at the top of the plane, E­1=mgh
Total energy at the bottom of the plane, Eb = KErot + KEtrans
= (1/2) Iω2 + (1/2) mv2
But I = mk2 and ω = v / R
Eb = (1/2)(mk2)(v2/R2) + (1/2)mv2
= (1/2)mv2 (1 + k2 / R2)
From the law of conservation of energy, we have:
ET = Eb
mgh = (1/2)mv2 (1 + k2 / R2)
v = 2gh / (1 + k2 / R2)
Hence, the given result is proved.

9.28. A disc rotating about its axis with angular speed ωois placed lightly (without any translational push) on a perfectly frictionless table. The radius of the disc is R. What are the linear velocities of the points A, B and C on the disc shown in Fig. 7.41? Will the disc roll in the direction indicated?
Answer

vA = Rωo; vB = Rω0, vc = (R/2)ω0
The disc will not roll
Angular speed of the disc = ωo
Radius of the disc = R
Using the relation for linear velocity, v = ωoR
For point A:
vA = Rωo; in the direction tangential to the right
For point B:
vB = Rωo; in the direction tangential to the left
For point C:
vc = (R/2)ωo in the direction same as that of vA
The directions of motion of points A, B, and C on the disc are shown in the following figure
Since the disc is placed on a frictionless table, it will not roll. This is because the presence of friction is essential for the rolling of a body.

Page no: 181

7.29. Explain why friction is necessary to make the disc in Fig. 7.41 roll in the direction indicated. (a) Give the direction of frictional force at B, and the sense of frictional torque, before perfect rolling begins.
(b) What is the force of friction after perfect rolling begins?
Answer

A torque is required to roll the given disc. As per the definition of torque, the rotating force should be tangential to the disc. Since the frictional force at point B is along the tangential force at point A, a frictional force is required for making the disc roll.

(a) Force of friction acts opposite to the direction of velocity at point B. The direction of linear velocity at point B is tangentially leftward. Hence, frictional force will act tangentially rightward. The sense of frictional torque before the start of perfect rolling is perpendicular to the plane of the disc in the outward direction.

(b) Since frictional force acts opposite to the direction of velocity at point B, perfect rolling will begin when the velocity at that point becomes equal to zero. This will make the frictional force acting on the disc zero.

7.30.A solid disc and a ring, both of radius 10 cm are placed on a horizontal table simultaneously, with initial angular speed equal to 10 π rad s-1. Which of the two will start to roll earlier? The co-efficient of kinetic friction is μk= 0.2.

Answer

Radii of the ring and the disc, r = 10 cm = 0.1 m
Initial angular speed, ω0 =10 π rad s–1
Coefficient of kinetic friction, μk = 0.2
Initial velocity of both the objects, u = 0
Motion of the two objects is caused by frictional force. As per Newton’s second law of motion, we have frictional force, f= ma
μkmg= ma
Where,
a = Acceleration produced in the objects
m = Mass
∴ a = μkg(i)
As per the first equation of motion, the final velocity of the objects can be obtained as:
v = u + at
= 0 + μkgt
= μkgt(ii)
The torque applied by the frictional force will act in perpendicularly outward direction and cause reduction in the initial angular speed.
Torque, τ= –
α = Angular acceleration
μkmgr = –
α = -μkmgr / I     .....(iii)
Using the first equation of rotational motion to obtain the final angular speed:
ω = ω0 + αt
= ω0 + (-μkmgr / I)t   ....(iv)
Rolling starts when linear velocity, v = rω
v = r (ω0- μkmgrt / I)    ...(v)
Equating equations (ii) and (v), we get:
μkgt = r (ω0- μkmgrt / I)
= rω0 - μkmgr2t / I   ....(vi)
For the ring:
I = mr2
μkgt = rω0 - μkmgr2t /mr2
= rω0 - μkgt
2μkgt = rω0
t = rω0 / 2μkg
= 0.1 × 10 × 3.14 / 2 × 0.2 × 9.8  =  0.80 s    ....(vii)
For the disc: I = (1/2)mr2
μkgt = rω0 - μkmgr2t/ (1/2)mr2
= rω0 - 2μkgt
3μkgt = rω0
t = rω0 / 3μkg
= 0.1 × 10 × 3.14 / 3 × 0.2 × 9.8  =  0.53 s   .....(viii)
Since td> tr, the disc will start rolling before the ring.

7.31. A cylinder of mass 10 kg and radius 15 cm is rolling perfectly on a plane of inclination 30°. The coefficient of static friction µs= 0.25.
(a) How much is the force of friction acting on the cylinder?
(b) What is the work done against friction during rolling?
(c) If the inclination θof the plane is increased, at what value of θ does the cylinder begin to skid, and not roll perfectly?

Answer

Mass of the cylinder, m= 10 kg
Radius of the cylinder, r= 15 cm = 0.15 m
Co-efficient of kinetic friction, µk = 0.25
Angle of inclination, θ= 30°
Moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about its geometric axis, I = (1/2)mr2
The various forces acting on the cylinder are shown in the following figure:
The acceleration of the cylinder is given as:
a = mg Sinθ / [m + (I/r2) ]
= mg Sinθ / [m + {(1/2)mr2/ r2} ]
= (2/3) gSin 30°
= (2/3) × 9.8 × 0.5  =  3.27 ms-2


(a)Using Newton’s second law of motion, we can write net force as:
fnet= ma
mg Sin 30° - f = ma
f = mg Sin 30° - ma
= 10 × 9.8 × 0.5 - 10 × 3.27
49 - 32.7 = 16.3 N

(b) During rolling, the instantaneous point of contact with the plane comes to rest. Hence, the work done against frictional force is zero.

(c) For rolling without skid, we have the relation:
μ = (1/3) tan θ
tan θ = 3μ = 3 × 0.25
θ = tan-1 (0.75) = 36.87°.

7.32. Read each statement below carefully, and state, with reasons, if it is true or false;
(a) During rolling, the force of friction acts in the same direction as the direction of motion of the CM of the body.
(b) The instantaneous speed of the point of contact during rolling is zero.
(c) The instantaneous acceleration of the point of contact during rolling is zero.
(d) For perfect rolling motion, work done against friction is zero.
(e) A wheel moving down a perfectly frictionlessinclined plane will undergo slipping (not rolling) motion.

Answer

(a)False
Frictional force acts opposite to the direction of motion of the centre of mass of a body. In the case of rolling, the direction of motion of the centre of mass is backward. Hence, frictional force acts in the forward direction.

(b)True
Rolling can be considered as the rotation of a body about an axis passing through the point of contact of the body with the ground. Hence, its instantaneous speed is zero.

(c)False
This is becausehen a body is rolling, its instantaneous acceleration is not equal to zero. It has some value.

(d)True
This is because once the perfect rolling begins, force of friction becomes zero. Hence work done against friction is zero.

(e)True
This is because rolling occurs only on account of friction which is a tangential force capable of providing torque. When the inclined plane is perfectly smooth, the wheel will simply slip under the effect of its own weight.


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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 8 Gravitation Physics

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NCERT Solutions for Class 11th: Ch 8 Gravitation Physics Science

Page No: 201

Excercises

8.1. Answer the following:
(a)You can shield a charge from electrical forces by putting it inside a hollow conductor. Can you shield a body from the gravitational influence of nearby matter by putting it inside a hollow sphere or by some other means?
(b) An astronaut inside a small space ship orbiting around the earth cannot detect gravity. If the space station orbiting around the earth has a large size, can he hope to detect gravity?
(c) If you compare the gravitational force on the earth due to the sun to that due to the moon, you would find that the Sun’s pull is greater than the moon’s pull. (You can check this yourself using the data available in the succeeding exercises). However, the tidal effect of the moon’s pull is greater than the tidal effect of sun. Why?

Answer

(a) We cannot shiwld a body from the gravitational influence of nearby matter, because the gravitational force on a body due to nearby matter is independent of the presence of other matter, whereas it is not so in case of electric forces. It means the gravitational screens are not possible.

(b) Yes, if the size of the space station is large enough, then the astronaut will detect the change in Earth’s gravity (g).
(c) Tidal effect depends inversely upon the cube of the distance while, gravitational force depends inversely on the square of the distance. Since the distance between the Moon and the Earth is smaller than the distance between the Sun and the Earth, the tidal effect of the Moon’s pull is greater than the tidal effect of the Sun’s pull.

8.2. Choose the correct alternative:
(a) Acceleration due to gravity increases/decreases with increasing altitude.
(b)Acceleration due to gravity increases/decreases with increasing depth. (assume the earth to be a sphere of uniform density).
(c)Acceleration due to gravity is independent of mass of the earth/mass of the body.
(d)The formula –G Mm(1/r2– 1/r1) is more/less accurate than the formula mg(r2r1) for the difference of potential energy between two points r2and r1distance away from the centre of the earth.

Answer

(a) decreases
(b) decreases
(c) mass of the body
(d) more.

8.3. Suppose there existed a planet that went around the sun twice as fast as the earth.What would be its orbital size as compared to that of the earth?

Answer

Time taken by the Earth to complete one revolution around the Sun,
Te = 1 year
Orbital radius of the Earth in its orbit, Re = 1 AU
Time taken by the planet to complete one revolution around the Sun, TP = ½Te = ½ year
Orbital radius of the planet = Rp
From Kepler’s third law of planetary motion, we can write:
(Rp / Re)3 = (Tp / Te)2
(Rp / Re) = (Tp / Te)2/3
= (½ / 1)2/3  =  0.52/3  =  0.63
Hence, the orbital radius of the planet will be 0.63 times smaller than that of the Earth.

8.4. Io, one of the satellites of Jupiter, has an orbital period of 1.769 days and the radius of the orbit is 4.22 × 108m. Show that the mass of Jupiter is about one-thousandth that of the sun.

Answer

Orbital period of  I0 , TI0 = 1.769 days  =  1.769 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
Orbital radius of  I0 , RI0 = 4.22 × 108 m
Satellite I0 is revolving around the Jupiter
Mass of the latter is given by the relation:
MJ = 4π2RI03 / GTI02   .....(i)
Where,
MJ = Mass of Jupiter
G = Universal gravitational constant
Orbital period of the earth,
Te = 365.25 days = 365.25 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
Orbital radius of the Earth,
Re = 1 AU = 1.496 × 1011 m
Mass of sun is given as:
Ms = 4π2Re3 / GTe     ......(ii)
Ms / MJ  =  (4π2Re3/ GTe2) × (GTI02/2RI03)   =   (Re3 × TI02) / (RI03 × Te2)
Substituting the values, we get:
= (1.769 × 24 × 60 × 60 / 365.25 × 24 × 60 × 60)2 × (1.496 × 1011 / 4.22 × 108)3
= 1045.04
Ms / MJ  ~ 1000
Ms ~ 1000 × MJ
Hence, it can be inferred that the mass of Jupiter is about one-thousandth that of the Sun.

8.5. Let us assume that our galaxy consists of 2.5 × 1011 stars each of one solar mass. How long will a star at a distance of 50,000 ly from the galactic centre take to complete one revolution? Take the diameter of the Milky Way to be 105 ly.

Answer

Mass of our galaxy Milky Way, M = 2.5 × 1011 solar mass
Solar mass = Mass of Sun = 2.0 × 1036kg
Mass of our galaxy, M= 2.5 × 1011× 2 × 1036 = 5 × 1041 kg
Diameter of Milky Way, d = 105 ly
Radius of Milky Way, r= 5 × 104 ly
1 ly = 9.46 × 1015 m
r = 5 × 104× 9.46 × 1015
= 4.73 ×1020 m
Since a star revolves around the galactic centre of the Milky Way, its time period is given by the relation:
T = ( 4π2r3/ GM)1/2
= [ (4 × 3.142 × 4.733 × 1060/ (6.67 × 10-11 × 5 × 1041) ]1/2
=   (39.48 × 105.82 × 1030/ 33.35 )1/2
= 1.12 × 1016 s
1 year = 365 × 324 × 60 × 60 s
1s = 1 / (365 × 324 × 60 × 60)  years
∴ 1.12 × 1016 s = 1.12 × 1016 / (365 × 24 × 60 × 60)  =  3.55 × 108 years.

8.6. Choose the correct alternative:
(a) If the zero of potential energy is at infinity, the total energy of an orbiting satellite is negative of its kinetic/potential energy.
(b) The energy required to launch an orbiting satellite out of earth’s gravitational influence is more/less than the energy required to project a stationary object at the same height (as the satellite) out of earth’s influence.

Answer

(a) Kinetic energy
(b) Less

8.7. Does the escape speed of a body from the earth depend on
(a) the mass of the body,
(b) the location from where it is projected,
(c) the direction of projection,
(d) the height of the location from where the body is launched?

Answer

The escape velocity is indpendent of the mass of the body and the direction of projection. It depends upon the gravitational potential at the point from where the body is launched. Since, this potential depends slightly on the latitude and height of the point, therefore, the escape velocity depends slightly on these factors.

8.8. A comet orbits the Sun in a highly elliptical orbit. Does the comet have a constant (a) linear speed, (b) angular speed, (c) angular momentum, (d) kinetic energy, (e) potential energy, (f) total energy throughout its orbit? Neglect any mass loss of the comet when it comes very close to the Sun.

Answer

A comet while going on elliptical orbit around the Sun has constant angular momentum and totaal energy at all locations but other quantities vary with locations.

8.9. Which of the following symptoms is likely to afflict an astronaut in space (a) swollen feet, (b) swollen face, (c) headache, (d) orientational problem?

Answer

(a) Legs hold the entire mass of a body in standing position due to gravitational pull. In space, an astronaut feels weightlessness because of the absence of gravity. Therefore, swollen feet of an astronaut do not affect him/her in space.

(b) A swollen face is caused generally because of apparent weightlessness in space. Sense organs such as eyes, ears nose, and mouth constitute a person’s face. This symptom can affect an astronaut in space.

(c) Headaches are caused because of mental strain. It can affect the working of an astronaut in space.

(d) Space has different orientations. Therefore, orientational problem can affect an astronaut in space.

8.10. Choose the correct answer from among the given ones:The gravitational intensity at the centre of a hemispherical shell of uniform mass density has the direction indicated by the arrow (see Fig 8.12) (i) a, (ii) b, (iii) c, (iv) O.
Answer

Gravitational potential (V) is constant at all points in a spherical shell. Hence, the gravitational potential gradient (dV/dR) is zero everywhere inside the spherical shell. The gravitational potential gradient is equal to the negative of gravitational intensity. Hence, intensity is also zero at all points inside the spherical shell. This indicates that gravitational forces acting at a point in a spherical shell are symmetric.
If the upper half of a spherical shell is cut out (as shown in the given figure), then the net gravitational force acting on a particle located at centre O will be in the downward direction.
Since gravitational intensity at a point is defined as the gravitational force per unit mass at that point, it will also act in the downward direction. Thus, the gravitational intensity at centre O of the given hemispherical shell has the direction as indicated by arrow c.

8.11. Choose the correct answer from among the given ones:
For the problem 8.10, the direction of the gravitational intensity at an arbitrary point P is indicated by the arrow (i) d, (ii) e, (iii) f, (iv) g.

Answer

Gravitational potential (V) is constant at all points in a spherical shell. Hence, the gravitational potential gradient (dV/dR) is zero everywhere inside the spherical shell. The gravitational potential gradient is equal to the negative of gravitational intensity. Hence, intensity is also zero at all points inside the spherical shell. This indicates that gravitational forces acting at a point in a spherical shell are symmetric.
If the upper half of a spherical shell is cut out (as shown in the given figure), then the net gravitational force acting on a particle at an arbitrary point P will be in the downward direction.
Since gravitational intensity at a point is defined as the gravitational force per unit mass at that point, it will also act in the downward direction. Thus, the gravitational intensity at an arbitrary point P of the hemispherical shell has the direction as indicated by arrow e.
Hence, the correct answer is (ii).

8.12. A rocket is fired from the earth towards the sun. At what distance from the earth’s centre is the gravitational force on the rocket zero? Mass of the sun = 2 ×1030kg, mass of the earth = 6 × 1024kg. Neglect the effect of other planets etc. (orbital radius = 1.5 × 1011m).

Answer

Mass of the Sun, Ms= 2 × 1030 kg
Mass of the Earth, Me= 6 × 10 24 kg
Orbital radius, r= 1.5 × 1011 m
Mass of the rocket = m
Let x be the distance from the centre of the Earth where the gravitational force acting on satellite P becomes zero.
From Newton’s law of gravitation, we can equate gravitational forces acting on satellite P under the influence of the Sun and the Earth as:
GmMs / (r - x)2  =  GmMe / x2
[ (r - x) / x ]2  =  Ms / Me
(r - x) / x  =  [ 2 × 1030 / 60 × 1024]1/2  =  577.35
1.5 × 1011 - x = 577.35x
578.35x = 1.5 × 1011
x = 1.5 × 1011 / 578.35  =  2.59 × 108 m.

8.13.How will you ‘weigh the sun’, that is estimate its mass? The mean orbital radius of the earth around the sun is 1.5 × 108km.

Answer

Orbital radius of the Earth around the Sun, r = 1.5 × 1011 m
Time taken by the Earth to complete one revolution around the Sun,
T = 1 year = 365.25 days
= 365.25 × 24 × 60 × 60 s
Universal gravitational constant, G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2 kg–2
Thus, mass of the Sun can be calculated using the relation,
M = 4π2r3 / GT2
= 4 × 3.142 × (1.5 × 1011)3/ [ 6.67 × 10-11 × (365.25 × 24 × 60 × 60)2]
= 2 × 1030 kg
Hence, the mass of the Sun is 2 × 1030 kg.

8.14. A Saturn year is 29.5 times the earth year. How far is the Saturn from the sun if the earth is 1.50 ×108km away from the sun?

Answer

Distance of the Earth from the Sun, re = 1.5 × 108 km = 1.5 × 1011 m
Time period of the Earth = e
Time period of Saturn, Ts = 29. 5 Te
Distance of Saturn from the Sun = rs
From Kepler’s third law of planetary motion, we have
T = (4π2r3 / GM)1/2
For Saturn and Sun, we can write
rs3 / re3  =  Ts2 / Te2
rs = re(Ts / Te)2/3
= 1.5 × 1011 (29.5 Te / Te)2/3
= 1.5 × 1011 (29.5)2/3
= 14.32 × 1011 m
Hence, the distance between Saturn and the Sun is 1.43 × 1012 m.

8.15. A body weighs 63 N on the surface of the earth. What is the gravitational force on it due to the earth at a height equal to half the radius of the earth?

Answer

Weight of the body, W= 63 N
Acceleration due to gravity at height h from the Earth’s surface is given by the relation:
g' = g / [1 + ( h / Re) ]2
Where,
g = Acceleration due to gravity on the Earth’s surface
Re = Radius of the Earth
For h = Re / 2
g' = g/ [(1 + (Re / 2Re) ]2
= g/ [1 + (1/2) ]2  =  (4/9)g
Weight of a body of mass m at height h is given as:
W' = mg
= m × (4/9)g  =  (4/9)mg
= (4/9)W
= (4/9) × 63  =  28 N.

8.16. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass density, how much would a body weigh half way down to the centre of the earth if it weighed 250 N on the surface?

Answer

Weight of a body of mass m at the Earth’s surface, W = mg = 250 N
Body of mass m is located at depth, d = (1/2)Re
Where,
Re = Radius of the Earth
Acceleration due to gravity at depth g (d) is given by the relation:
g' = (1 - (d / Re)g
= [1 - (Re / 2Re]g  =  (1/2)g
Weight of the body at depth d,
W' = mg'
= m × (1/2)g  =  (1/2) mg  =  (1/2)W
= (1/2) × 250  =  125 N

8.17. A rocket is fired vertically with a speed of 5 km s–1from the earth’s surface. How far from the earth does the rocket go before returning to the earth? Mass of the earth = 6.0 × 1024kg; mean radius of the earth = 6.4 × 106m; G= 6.67 × 10–11N m2kg2.

Answer

Velocity of the rocket, v = 5 km/s = 5 × 103m/s
Mass of the Earth, Me = 6 × 1024 kg
Radius of the Earth, Re = 6.4 × 106 m
Height reached by rocket mass, m = h
At the surface of the Earth,
Total energy of the rocket = Kinetic energy + Potential energy
= (1/2)mv2 + (-GMem / Re)
At highest point h,
v = 0
And, Potential energy = -GMem / (Re + h)
Total energy of the rocket = 0 + [ -GMem / (Re + h) ]
= -GMem / (Re + h)
From the law of conservation of energy, we have
Total energy of the rocket at the Earth’s surface = Total energy at height h
(1/2)mv2 + (-GMem / Re) = -GMem / (Re + h)
(1/2)v2 = GMe [ (1/Re) - 1 / (Re + h) ]
= GMe[ (Re + h - Re)  / Re(Re+ h) ]
(1/2)v2 = gReh / (Re + h)
Where g = GM / Re2 = 9.8 ms-2
v2 (Re + h) = 2gReh
v2Re = h(2gRe - v2)
h = Rev2 / (2gRev2)
= 6.4 × 106 × (5 × 103)2 / [ 2 × 9.8 × 6.4 × 106 - (5 × 103)2
h = 1.6 × 106 m
Height achieved by the rocket with respect to the centre of the Earth = Re + h
= 6.4 × 106 + 1.6 × 106  =  8 × 106 m.

8.18. The escape speed of a projectile on the earth’s surface is 11.2 km s–1. A body is projected out with thrice this speed. What is the speed of the body far away from the earth? Ignore the presence of the sun and other planets.

Answer

Escape velocity of a projectile from the Earth, vesc = 11.2 km/s
Projection velocity of the projectile, vp = 3vesc
Mass of the projectile = m
Velocity of the projectile far away from the Earth = vf
Total energy of the projectile on the Earth = (1/2)mvp2 - (1/2)mvesc2
Gravitational potential energy of the projectile far away from the Earth is zero.
Total energy of the projectile far away from the Earth = (1/2)mvf2
From the law of conservation of energy, we have
(1/2)mvp2 - (1/2)mvesc2  =  (1/2)mvf2
vf = ( vp2 - vesc2 )1/2
= [ (3vesc)2 - vesc2]1/2
= √8 vesc
= √8 × 11.2  =  31.68 km/s.

8.19. A satellite orbits the earth at a height of 400 km above the surface. How much energy must be expended to rocket the satellite out of the earth’s gravitational influence? Mass of the satellite = 200 kg; mass of the earth = 6.0 ×1024 kg; radius of the earth = 6.4 ×106 m; G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 kg–2.

Answer

Mass of the Earth, M= 6.0 × 1024 kg
Mass of the satellite, m = 200 kg
Radius of the Earth, Re= 6.4 × 106 m
Universal gravitational constant, G = 6.67 × 10–11 Nm2kg–2
Height of the satellite, h = 400 km = 4 × 105 m = 0.4 ×106m
Total energy of the satellite at height h = (1/2)mv2 + [ -GMem / (Re + h) ]
Orbital velocity of the satellite, v= [ GMe / (Re + h) ]1/2
Total energy of height, h = (1/2)GMem / (Re + h) - GMem / (Re + h)  =  -(1/2)GMem / (Re + h)
The negative sign indicates that the satellite is bound to the Earth. This is called bound energy of the satellite.
Energy required to send the satellite out of its orbit = – (Bound energy)
= (1/2) GMem / (Re + h)
= (1/2) × 6.67 × 10-11 × 6 × 1024 × 200 / (6.4 × 106 + 0.4 × 106)
= 5.9 × 109 J.

8.20. Two stars each of one solar mass (= 2× 1030 kg) are approaching each other for a head on collision. When they are a distance 109 km, their speeds are negligible. What is the speed with which they collide? The radius of each star is 104 km. Assume the stars to remain undistorted until they collide. (Use the known value of G).

Answer

Mass of each star, M = 2 × 1030 kg
Radius of each star, R = 104 km = 107 m
Distance between the stars, r = 109 km = 1012m
For negligible speeds, v = 0 total energy of two stars separated at distance r
= [ -GMM / r] + (1/2)mv2
[ -GMM / r ] + 0  ....(i)
Now, consider the case when the stars are about to collide:
Velocity of the stars = v
Distance between the centers of the stars = 2R
Total kinetic energy of both stars = (1/2) Mv2 + (1/2)Mv2 = Mv2
Total potential energy of both stars = -GMM / 2R
Total energy of the two stars = Mv2 - GMM / 2R   ....(ii)
Using the law of conservation of energy, we can write:
Mv2 - GMM / 2R =  -GMM / r
v2 = -GM / r + GM / 2R
= GM[ (-1/r) + (1/2R) ]
= 6.67 × 10-11 × 2 × 1030[ (-1/1012 ) + (1 / 2 × 107) ]
~ 6.67 × 1012
v = ( 6.67 × 1012)1/2  =  2.58 × 106 m/s.

8.21. Two heavy spheres each of mass 100 kg and radius 0.10 m are placed 1.0 m apart on a
horizontal table. What is the gravitational force and potential at the mid point of the line joining the centers of the spheres? Is an object placed at that point in equilibrium? If so, is the equilibrium
stable or unstable?

Answer

Grvitational field at the mid-point of the line joining the centres of the two spheres
= GM/(r/2)2 (alog negative r) + GM/(r/2) (along r) = 0

Gravitational potential at the midpoint f the line joining the centres of the two spheres is

V = - GM/r/2 + (-GM/r/2) = -4GM/r = -4 × 6.67 × 10-11× 100/1.0
= -2.7 × 10-8 J/Kg

As the effective force on the body placed at mid-point is zero, sso the body is in equilibrium. If the body is displaced a little towards either mass body from its equilibrium position, it will not return back to its inital position of equilibrium. Hence, the body is in unstable equilibrium.

8.22. As you have learnt in the text, a geostationary satellite orbits the earth at a height of nearly 36,000 km from the surface of the earth. What is the potential due to earth’s gravity at the site of this satellite? (Take the potential energy at infinity to be zero). Mass of the earth = 6.0 × 1024kg, radius = 6400 km.

Answer

Mass of the Earth, M= 6.0 × 1024 kg
Radius of the Earth, R= 6400 km = 6.4 × 106 m
Height of a geostationary satellite from the surface of the Earth,
h = 36000 km = 3.6 × 107 m
Gravitational potential energy due to Earth’s gravity at height h,
= -GM / (R + h)
= - 6.67 × 10-11 × 6 × 1024 / (3.6 × 107 + 0.64 × 107)
= -9.4 × 106 J/kg.

8.23. A star 2.5 times the mass of the sun and collapsed to a size of 12 km rotates with a speed of 1.2 rev. per second. (Extremely compact stars of this kind are known as neutron stars. Certain stellar objects called pulsars belong to this category). Will an object placed on its equator remain stuck to its surface due to gravity? (Mass of the sun = 2 × 1030kg).

Answer

A body gets stuck to the surface of a star if the inward gravitational force is greater than the outward centrifugal force caused by the rotation of the star.
Gravitational force, fg = - GMm / R2
Where,
M = Mass of the star = 2.5 × 2 × 1030 = 5 × 1030 kg
m = Mass of the body
R = Radius of the star = 12 km = 1.2 ×104 m
fg = 6.67 × 10-11 × 5 × 1030 × m / (1.2 × 104)2  =  2.31 × 1011 m N
Centrifugal force, fc= mrω2
ω= Angular speed = 2πν
ν = Angular frequency = 1.2 rev s–1
fc = mR (2πν)2
= m× (1.2 ×104) × 4 × (3.14)2× (1.2)2 = 1.7 ×105mN
Since fg> fc, the body will remain stuck to the surface of the star.

8.24. A spaceship is stationed on Mars. How much energy must be expended on the spaceship to launch it out of the solar system? Mass of the space ship = 1000 kg; mass of the Sun = 2 × 1030 kg; mass of mars = 6.4 × 1023 kg; radius of mars = 3395 km; radius of the orbit of mars = 2.28 × 108kg; G= 6.67 × 10–11 m2kg–2.

Answer

Mass of the spaceship, ms = 1000 kg
Mass of the Sun, M= 2 × 1030kg
Mass of Mars, mm= 6.4 × 10 23kg
Orbital radius of Mars, R= 2.28 × 108 kg =2.28 × 1011m
Radius of Mars, r = 3395 km = 3.395 × 106m
Universal gravitational constant, G = 6.67 × 10–11m2kg–2
Potential energy of the spaceship due to the gravitational attraction of the Sun = -GMms / R
Potential energy of the spaceship due to the gravitational attraction of Mars = -GMmms / r
Since the spaceship is stationed on Mars, its velocity and hence, its kinetic energy will be zero.
Total energy of the spaceship =  -GMms / R-  GMmms / r
= -Gms[ (M / R) + (mm / r) ]
The negative sign indicates that the system is in bound state.
Energy required for launching the spaceship out of the solar system
= – (Total energy of the spaceship)
= Gms[ (M / R) + (mm / r) ]
= 6.67 × 10-11 × 103 × [ (2 × 1030/ 2.28 × 1011) + (6.4 × 1023/ 3.395 × 106 ) ]
= 596.97 × 109  =  6 × 1011 J.

8.25. A rocket is fired ‘vertically’ from the surface of mars with a speed of 2 km s–1. If 20% of its initial energy is lost due to Martian atmospheric resistance, how far will the rocket go from the surface of mars before returning to it? Mass of mars = 6.4× 1023 kg; radius of mars = 3395 km; G = 6.67× 10-11 N m2kg–2.

Answer

Initial velocity of the rocket, v = 2 km/s = 2 × 103 m/s
Mass of Mars, M= 6.4 × 1023 kg
Radius of Mars, R= 3395 km = 3.395 × 106 m
Universal gravitational constant, G = 6.67× 10–11 N m2 kg–2
Mass of the rocket = m
Initial kinetic energy of the rocket = (1/2)mv2
Initial potential energy of the rocket = -GMm / R
Total initial energy = (1/2)mv2- GMm / R
If 20 % of initial kinetic energy is lost due to Martian atmospheric resistance, then only 80 % of its kinetic energy helps in reaching a height.
Total initial energy available = (80/100) × (1/2) mv2 - GMm / R  =  0.4mv2 - GMm / R
Maximum height reached by the rocket = h
At this height, the velocity and hence, the kinetic energy of the rocket will become zero.
Total energy of the rocket at height h = -GMm / (R + h)

Applying the law of conservation of energy for the rocket, we can write:
0.4mv2 - GMm / R  =  -GMm / (R + h)
0.4v2 = GM / R  -  GM / (R + h)
= GMh / R(R + h)
(R + h) / h  =  GM / 0.4v2R
R / h  =  ( GM / 0.4v2R )  -  1
h = R / [ (GM / 0.4v2R) - 1 ]
= 0.4R2v2/ (GM - 0.4v2R)
= 0.4 × (3.395 × 106)2 × (2 × 103)2/[ 6.67 × 10-11 × 6.4 × 1023  0.4 × (2 × 103)2 × (3.395 × 106) ]
= 18.442 × 1018 / [ 42.688 × 1012  -  5.432 × 1012 ]
= 18.442 × 106 / 37.256
= 495 × 103 m = 495 km.


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