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Extra Questions for Class 9th: Ch 3 Drainage Social Studies (S.St) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. Which word denotes a river system of an area?

Answer

Drainage

2. Which river is known as the ‘Dakshin Ganga’?

Answer

The Godavari

3. Which is the second longest river of Peninsular India?

Answer

Krishna

4. Which place is located on the water divide between the Indus and the Ganga river system ?

Answer

Ambala

5. Which type of drainage pattern is made by Narmada River?

Answer

Trellis drainage pattern

6. Zaskar and Nubra are important tributaries of which river?

Answer

Indus river.

7. At which place do the Satluj, Beas, Ravi, Chenab and the Jhelum rivers goin together with Indus ?

Answer

Mithankot

8. Yamuna, Ghaghara and Kizi are important tributaries of which river?

Answer

Ganga.

9. According to Indus Water Treaty (1960), India can use how much percentage of total water carried by Indus?

Answer

20% of total water carried by Indus.

10. In which of the following states is Sambhar Lake situated?

Answer

Rajasthan

Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. Explain the term ’water divide’ with example. What is its significance?

Answer

Any elevated area such as a mountain or an upland that separates two drainage basins is known as water divide. The Western Ghats is a water divide of peninsular rivers.

It helps us identify two different drainage patterns.

2. What are perennial and non-perennial rivers? Give reasons why the Himalayan region consists of perennial rivers.

Answer

The rivers that flow throughout the year are termed as perennial rivers. They have more or less even flow throughout the year. Example: the Ganga.

The rivers that do not flow throughout the year are termed as non-perennial rivers. They are seasonal rivers that flow mainly during the rainy season and dwindle during the dry period. Example: the Subarnarekha.

The rivers of the Himalayan region are perennial in nature. They have their sources in the snow fields and glaciers of the Himalayas which supply water to these rivers throughout the year.

3. What is a river pattern? Name any four patterns formed by the river.

Answer

The stream within a drainage basin form certain patterns depending on the slope of land, underlying rock structure as well as the climatic conditions of the area. Four patterns formed by rivers are:

(i) Dendritic pattern

(ii) Trellis pattern

(iii) Radial pattern

(iv) Rectangular pattern.

4. Name the three Himalayan river system. Give two tributaries of each.

Answer

Three Himalayan river systems are:

(i) The Indus river system

(ii) The Ganga river system

(iii) The Brahamaputra river system.

Tributaries:

(i) Indus river system – Satluj, Beas, Ravi

(ii) Ganga river system – Yamuna, Ghaghara, Gandak

(iii) Brahmaputra river system – Dibang, Lohit, Kenula.

5. Define a river system and describe two characteristics of river Indus.

Answer

A river along with its tributaries is called a river system.

Characteristics:

(i) River Indus rises in Tibet near Mansarovar Lake.

(ii) Its total length is 2,900 km and is one of the longest rivers of the world.

(iii) Majority of it flows through Pakistan and assists in agricultural activities.

6. Describe any three features of the Himalayan Rivers.

Answer

(i) These are perennial.
(ii) Have long courses from their source to the sea.
(iii) These rivers perform intensive erosion activity in their upper course and carry huge load of silt and sand.

7. Describe any three important features of the Ganga river system.

Answer

(i) Headwaters of the Ganga (called Bhagirathi) is born from Gangotri Glacier and is joined by Alakananda at Devprayag.
(ii) The Ganga is joined by a large number of tributaries from east and west.
(iii) It drains into the Bay of Bengal after joining the Brahmaputra and through its distributaries.

8. How do the Himalayan rivers perform erosional activities and form depositional features?

Answer

(i) In the upper course, rivers flow with great speed from higher to lower levels. They cause erosion.
(ii) In the middle and the lower course, they carry lots of sediment like silt and sand. So, the speed slows down.
(iii) Besides, absence of slope in the lower course causes deposition and formation of various features.

9. What is a lake? How are lakes formed?

Answer

A lake is an area of water surrounded by land on all sides.

(i) There are lakes which are formed as a result of action of glaciers and ice sheets, while the

others have been formed by wind, river action, and human activities.

(ii) Some lakes are formed as a result of the tectonic activity. For example, Wular Lake in

Jammu and Kashmir.

(iii) The damming of rivers for the generation of hydel power has also led to the formation of

lakes.

10. Differentiate between the Ganga and the Godavari river system.

Answer

Ganga River System:

• It is a Himalayan river.

• The ganga emerges from the mountains onto the plains from Haridwar.

• The length of Ganga is over 2500 km.

Godavari river system:

• It is a peninsular river.

• It rises from the slopes of the Western Ghats in Nasik district of Maharashtra.

• The length of Godavari is 1500 km.

Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Define water divide. What are the different patterns of flow made by a river?

Answer

An elevated area such as a mountain or an upland that separates two drainage basins is called water divide. The four drainage patterns are as follows:
(i) Dendritic: The dendritic pattern develops where the river channels follow the slope of the terrain. The stream with its tributaries resembles the branches of a tree, thus the name dendritic.
(ii) Trellis: A river joined by its tributaries, at approximately right angles, develops a trellis pattern. A trellis drainage pattern develops where hard and soft rocks exist parallel to each other.
(iii) Rectangular: A rectangular drainage pattern develops on a strongly-jointed rocky terrain.
(iv) Radial: The radial pattern develops when streams flow in different directions from a central peak or dome-like structure.

2. What are the differences between the Himalayan rivers and the Peninsular rivers?

Answer

The Himalayan Rivers:

• The Himalayan rivers are perennial in nature as they are fed by the melting snow and glaciers of the lofty ranges supplemented by monsoon rains.

• The Himalayan rivers have long course from their sources in the mountains to the sea.

• The Himalayan rivers rise in the Himadri, Himachal or Shivalik section of the Himalayas and form the Northern Plains with their deposition of alluvium.

• The Himalayan rivers flow through geologically unstable areas.

• They perform intensive erosional activity in upper course. In middle and lower course they form meanders, oxbow lakes, extensive floodplains and well-developed deltas.

The Peninsular Rivers:

• The Peninsular rivers are non-perennial in nature as they are fed by monsoon rains and have heavy flow during rainy season followed by reduced flow during dry season.

•The Peninsular rivers have shorter and shallower courses.

• Most of the rivers of Peninsular India originate in the Western Ghats and flow towards the Bay of Bengal.

• Peninsular rivers originate at much lower altitudes and flow through geologically stable areas.

• The Narmada and Tapi are fault-guided rivers. The east-flowing rivers from large deltas. Meanders are not notable in these rivers.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 3 Drainage

Notes of Chapter 3 Drainage

MCQ Test of Chapter 3 Drainage

Study Material and Notes of Ch 4 Climate Class 9th Geography

• Climate refers to the sum total of weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time (more than thirty years).

• Weather refers to the state of the atmosphere over an area at any point of time.

• Elements of Weather and Climate:
→ Temperature
→ Atmospheric pressure
→ Wind
→ Humidity
→ Precipitation

Climatic Controls

• There are six major controls of the climate of any place. They are:
→ Latitude
→ Altitude
→ Pressure and wind system
→ Distance from the sea (continentality)
→ Ocean currents
→ Relief features

Factors affecting India's Climate

→ Latitude
→ Altitude
→ Pressure and Winds

Latitude

• The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of the country. Half of the country lying south of the Tropic of Cancer, belongs to the tropical area.

Altitude

• The Himalayas prevent the cold winds from Central Asia from entering the subcontinent. making winter milder as compared to central Asia.

Pressure and Winds

• Atmospheric conditions that govern climate and associated weather conditions in India are:
→ Pressure and surface winds
→ Upper air circulation
→ Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical cyclones.

Upper Air Circulation

• The higher level of the atmosphere is dominated by a westerly flow. An important component of this flow is the jet stream.

• Jet Streams are a narrow belt of high altitude westerly winds in the troposphere (transition between troposphere and stratosphere.

Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical cyclones

• The western disturbances, which enter the Indian subcontinent from the west and the northwest during the winter months, originate over the Mediterranean Sea and are brought into India by the westerly jet stream.

• Tropical cyclones originate over the Bay of Bengal and the Indian ocean.

• Tropical cyclones occur during the monsoon as well as in October-November, and are part of the easterly flow.

The Indian Monsoon

• Monsoon are seasonal winds which reverse their direction of flow with the change of season.

• The climate of India is strongly influenced by monsoon winds.

Factors that affect the mechanism of Indian Monsoon

• Differential heating and cooling of land and water create low pressure on land while the sea experiences high pressure.

• Shifting of Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) over the Ganga plain during summers.

• The intensity and position of high-pressure area towards the east of Madagascar approximately at 20°S over the Indian Ocean affects the Indian Monsoon. affects the Indian Monsoon.

• The heating up of the Tibetan plateau in summers creates low pressure above the plateau.

• The movement of the westerly jet stream to the north of the Himalayas and the presence of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula during summer.

• Southern Oscillation.

The Onset of the Monsoon and Withdrawal

• The duration of the monsoon is between 100-120 days from early June to mid-September.

• When the monsoon arrives the normal rainfall increases suddenly and continues constantly for several days. This is known as the ‘burst’ of the monsoon.

• It proceeds into two – the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.

• The Arabian Sea branch reaches Mumbai about ten days later on approximately the 10th of June.

• The Bay of Bengal branch also advances rapidly and arrives in Assam in the first week of June.

• The withdrawal of the monsoon begins in northwestern states of India by early September.

• By mid-October, it withdraws completely from the northern half of the peninsula.

• By December, the monsoons retreat completely from the rest of India.

The Seasons

• Four main seasons can be identified in India
→ the cold weather season
→ the hot weather season
→ the advancing monsoon
→ the retreating monsoon

The Cold Weather Season (Winter)

• The season begins from mid-November and stays till February in northern India.

• Coldest months are December and January in the northern part of India.

The Hot Weather Season (Summer)

• The hot weather season in India ranges from March to May.

• Temperatures upto 48 degree Celsius are experienced in North India.

• In peninsular India, temperatures remain lower due to the moderating influence of the oceans.

Advancing Monsoon (The Rainy Season)

• By early June, the trade winds of the southern hemisphere get attracted to the northen hemisphere due to the creation of low-pressure condition there.
• Rainfall in the Ganga valley decreases from the east to the west.

• Rajasthan and parts of Gujarat get scanty rainfall.

Retreating/Post Monsoons (The Transition Season)

• During October-November, the movement of the sun towards South causes the monsoon trough in the Northern Plains to become weaker.

• By early November, the low-pressure conditions, over north-western India, get transferred to the Bay of Bengal which cause cycloninc depressions.

Monsoon as a Unifying Bond

• There is great diversity in the climatic conditions due to location, extent and relief features.

• These monsoon winds bind the whole country by providing water to set the agricultural activities in motion.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 4 Climate

Extra Questions of Chapter 4 Climate

MCQ Test of Chapter 4 Climate

Extra Questions for Class 9th: Ch 4 Climate Social Studies (S.St) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. Kal Baisakhi is associated with which state?

Answer

Bengal

2. Which is the coldest place in India?

Answer

Drass.

3. The peninsular part of India experiences peak summers earlier than northern India because.

Answer

Due to northward movement of the sun, the global heat belt shifts northward.

4. Why Bengal, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh coasts are frequented by cyclones?

Answer

Low pressure conditions in northwest India lead to the creation of depression over Andaman sea.

5. Which place in India records the highest rainfall in the world?

Answer

Mawsynram

6. Which part of India experiences the highest range of temperature in a day?

Answer

Thar Desert in Rajasthan.

Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. Where is Mawsynram located? Why does Mawsynram receive the highest amount of rainfall?

Answer

Mawsynram is located in the southern ranges of the Khasi Hills at a height of 1,500 m above the sea level.

This place receives the highest amount of rainfall because it is enclosed by hills on three sides. The relief features give this place a tunnel-shaped location. The Bay of Bengal monsoon is trapped in these hills. The winds try to get out of it, but are forced to pour down there.

2. What influence has the Himalayas on India’s climate?

Answer

• Himalayas act as natural barriers to the extremely cold winds from Central Asia and enables North India to have more or less uniform and comfortable temperatures.

• They act as a barrier to the south west monsoon in summer and precipitates heavy rain on the country.

• Most of the Indian rivers are fed by glaciers located in the Himalayas.

3. Differentiate between climate and weather.

Answer

• Climate: It refers to the sum total of the weather conditions and variations over a large area for a long period of time.
• Weather: It refers to the state of atmosphere over an area at any point of time. The elements of weather and climate are the same.

4. What are ‘Jet Streams’? How is Jet Stream related with Western Cyclonic Disturbances?

Answer

Jet Streams are a narrow belt of high altitude westerly winds in the troposphere. Their speed varies from about 110 km/h in summer to about 184 km/h in winter. Little amount of winter rains over the plains and snowfall in the mountains are an impact of western cyclonic disturbances from the Mediterranean Sea.

5. Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?

Answer

• Climate of India is strongly governed by the monsoon winds. Monsoon winds are confined to tropical lands between 20° North and 20° South.
• In the India subcontinent, the Himalaya's guide the flow of the monsoon winds bunging the whole of subcontinent under the influence of this winds.
• These winds account for 75% to 90% of annual rainfall from tune to September.

6. What are the factors affecting the climate of India?

Answer

Factors affecting the climate of India:

• Latitude: The temperature decreases from the Equator towards the poles. Places located on lower latitudes are hotter than the places located on higher latitudes. Solar energy is present at a higher rate more in lower latitudes.

• Altitude: At higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less dense and temperature decreases. Hills are cooler during summers, e.g., climate of Shimla climate is cooler than that of Delhi.

• Distance from the sea: Sea has a moderating influence on the climate. As the distance from the ocean or sea increases, its moderating influence decreases and extreme weather conditions are experienced, i.e., very hot in summer and very cold in winter.

7. How does the latitude affect India's climate?

Answer

• The Tropic of Cancer passes almost from the middle of the country.
• Almost half of the country, lying south of the Tropic of Cancer, belongs to the tropical area.
• All the remaining area in the north of the Tropic lies in the sub-tropical area. Thus, India's climate has characteristics of tropical as well as sub-tropical type of climate.

8. Describe the western cyclonic disturbance and its impact on climate.

Answer

• Western cyclonic disturbances are a weather phenomena of the winters.
• They are brought in by the westerly flow from the Mediterranean region.
• They usually influence the weather of the North and North-western regions of India.

Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Explain how the pressure and wind conditions over India are unique.

Answer

• During winter, a high pressure area develops north of the Himalayas.
• Cold dry winds blow from this region to the low pressure areas over the oceans to the south.
• In summer, a low pressure area develops over interior Asia as well as over northwestern India.
• This causes a complete reversal of the direction of winds during summer.
• Air moves from the high pressure area over the southern Indian ocean in a south-westerly direction, crosses the equator and turns right towards the low pressure area over the Indian sub-continent.
• These winds are known as south-west monsoon winds.
• These winds blow over the warm oceans, gather moisture and bring widespread rainfall over the mainland of India.

2. Explain why the distribution of rainfall in India is uneven?
OR
“Rainfall is unevenly distributed in India.” Justify in five points.

Answer

• Monsoon rains are limited only to few months of a year.
• The topography of India leads to more rainfall in some regions while less in others.
• Cyclones help rain scattering at places, while other places remain without rain.
• Whole of India does not receive rain by monsoon winds. Eastern Coast of India gets rain only from North-east monsoons during the month of December-January.

3. What are the six major controls of the climate of the world?

Answer

• Latitude: Due to the round shape of the Earth, the amount of solar energy received varies according to latitude. As a result, air temperature decreases from the equator towards the poles.
• Altitude: As one moves up to the higher altitudes, the atmosphere becomes less dense and temperature decreases.
• Pressure and winds: Pressure and wind system of an area depend on the latitude and altitude of the place.
• Distance from the sea: If the region is close to the sea, it makes the temperature moderate but if it is away from the sea, it experiences extreme weather conditions.
• Ocean currents: Ocean currents along with the onshore winds affect the climate of a coastal area. Any coastal area with warm or cold currents flowing past it, will become warm or cold if the winds are onshore.
• Relief: High mountains act as barriers for cold and hot winds. They may also cause precipitation if they lie in the path of rain-bearing winds. The leeward side of mountains remains dry.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 4 Climate

Notes of Chapter 4 Climate

MCQ Test of Chapter 4 Climate

Extra Questions for Class 9th: Ch 3 Drainage Social Studies (S.St) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. At which place are Royal Bengal tigers found?

Answer

Sunderban delta

2. How many types of plant species are found in India?

Answer

About 47,000 approximately.

3. Why moist tropical deciduous forests are more prominent in the eastern and central parts of India?

Answer

These areas experience 100 to 200 cm of annual rainfall.

4. Which type of natural vegetation has originally come to India from abroad?

Answer

Exotic plants.

5. In which region the yak, shaggy-horned wild ox and the Tibetan antelope are found?

Answer

Ladakh

6. A very large ecosystem on land having distinct type of vegetation and wildlife is called.

Answer

Biome.

Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. How do climatic factors influence the vegetation cover of India? Explain.

Answer

• The character and extent of vegetation are mainly determined by temperature, along with humidity in the air, precipitation and soil. The fall in the temperature affects the types of vegetation and its growth and changes it from tropical to subtropical, temperate and alpine vegetation.

• The variation in duration of sunlight at different places is due to differences in latitude, altitude, season and duration of the day. Due to longer duration of sunlight, trees grow faster in summer.

• Areas of heavy rainfall have more dense vegetation as compared to other areas of less rainfall.

2. Describe natural vegetation and distinguish between flora and fauna.

Answer

(i) Natural vegetation refers to a plant community which has grown naturally without human aid and has been left undisturbed by humans for a long time.

• The term flora is used to denote plants of a particular region or period. All the flowering

and non-flowering plants from a tiny fungus to a creeper to a big tree is called flora.

• The species of animals are referred to as fauna. All the animal species staring from a tiny

bacteria to a big elephant is called fauna.

3. How are forests useful to human being?

Answer

Forests are renewable resources and play a major role in enhancing the quality of environment. They modify local climate, control soil erosion, regulate stream flow, support a variety of industries, provide livelihood for many communities and offer panoramic or scenic view for recreation. It controls wind force and temperature and causes rainfall. It provides humus to the soil and shelter to the wild life.

4. A great variety of flora is found in India. Give three geographical factors responsible for this diversification of flora.

Answer

Factors responsible for huge diversity of Flora and Fauna:
• Land: Nature of land influences the type of vegetation. For example, land for agriculture and undulating land for forests.
• Soil: Different types of soils provide basis for different vegetation.
• Temperature: Vegetation differs from low temperature to high temperature.

5. Why has India’s natural vegetation undergone many changes in the recent past? Explain.

Answer

• For the development of industries, more transportation and raw materials needed for which forests are cut down.

• Growing demand for cultivation requires more land for which forests are cleared.
• Increasing urbanisation and overgrazing of pastures.

6. Explain any three major threats to the rich biodiversity of India.

Answer

The rich biodiversity of India is threatened by:
(i) Hunting by greedy hunters.
(ii) Pollution due to chemical and industrial wastes.
(iii) Reckless cutting of forests for cultivation, inhabitation, railway expansion, etc.

Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Why are forests important for human beings?

Answer

• Forests are renewable resources and play a major role in enhancing the quality of the environment.
• They modify the local climate and control soil erosion.
• They regulate the flow of streams and support a variety of industries like the rubber industry.
• Forests also provide a livelihood for many communities.
• They also offer panoramic or scenic view for recreation.
• They control the wind force and temperature and cause rainfall.
• They provide humus to the soil and shelter to wildlife.

2. Describe any five characteristics features of tropical rain forests of India.

Answer

• Tropical rain forests are restricted to heavy rainfall areas of India.
• They are at their best in areas having more than 200 cm of rainfall with a short dry season.
• The trees found in these forests reach great heights upto 60 metres or even above.
• Since the region is warm and wet throughout the year it has luxuriant vegetation of all kinds trees, shrubs and creepers giving it a multilayered structure.
• There is no definite time for trees to shed their leaves.
• As such, these forests appear green all the year round.
• Some of the commercially important trees of this forest are ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber and cinchona.
• The common animals found in these forests are elephant, monkey, lemur and deer.

2. Describe any five features of mountainous forests of India.

Answer

• In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to a corresponding change in natural vegetation thus making a succession of natural vegetation belts.
• The wet temperate type of forests are found between a height of 1000 and 2000 metres.
• Evergreen broad leaf trees such as oaks and chestnuts predominate.
• Between 1500 and 3000 metres, temperate forests containing coniferous trees like pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce and cedar are found.
• These forests cover mostly the southern slopes of the Himalayas, places at high altitude in southern and North-east India.
• At higher elevations, temperate grasslands are common.
• At high altitudes, generally more than 3600 metres above sea level, temperate forests and grasslands give way to the Alpine vegetation.
• Silver fir, junipers, pines and birches are the common trees of these forests.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Notes of Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

MCQ Test of Chapter 5 Natural Vegetation and Wildlife

Extra Questions for Class 9th: Ch 6 Population Social Studies (S.St) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. Which state has the lowest population?

Answer

Sikkim.

2. What was the population density of India according to 2011?

Answer

382 person/km2.

3. Which age group is considered economically productive in the study of population?

Answer

15-59 years.

4. The number of people in different age groups is referred to as ...

Answer

Age composition.

5. Which movement of the people across regions and territories does not change the size of the population?

Answer

Internal

6. What is the main cause for the high growth of our population?

Answer

Decline of death rate

7. What is sex ratio?

Answer

Number of females per thousand males

Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. What is a census? Why is it important for a country to conduct censuses periodically?

Answer

A census is an official enumeration of population done periodically. The counting is conducted usually every tenth year.

The various uses of a census are as follows :

• A census provides us information regarding the population of the country.

• It is the most comprehensive source of demographic, social and economic data.

• It provides us with information regarding population size and distribution. So it helps in planning the development of various regions.

2. Describe the three population density zones of India.

Answer

The three population density zones of India are:
• High density zone: The Northern plains, above 500 people per sq. km.
• Moderate or medium density zone: Mountain region, 250-500 people per sq. km.
• Low density zone: Plateau region, below 250 people per sq. km.

3. Census is primarily concerned with which three main questions about the population? Explain.

Answer

The three main questions on which census is primarily concerned with are:
• Population size and distribution.
• Population growth and processes of population change.
• Characteristics or qualities of the population.

4. Population is the pivotal element in social studies. Support your answer giving three points.

Answer

Population is the pivotal element in social studies. We can say this because:
• It is the point of reference from which all other elements are observed and from which they derive significance and meaning.
• ‘Resources’, ‘calamities’ and ‘disasters’ are all meaningful only in relation to human beings.
• Their numbers, distribution, growth and characteristics or qualities provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating all aspects of the environment.

Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Describe any five significant features of the National Population Policy 2000.

Answer

• NPP 2000 identified adolescents as one of the major sections of the population that need greater attention.
• Its main objective is to cater to their nutritional requirements.
• To impart free and compulsory school education upto 14 years of age.
• To reduce infant mortality rate to 30 per 1000 live births.
• To immunise all children against ailments.
• To promote delayed marriage of girls.
• To make family welfare, a people centered programme.

2. “Distribution of population in India is uneven.“ Prove this statement with examples.

Answer

• Physical factors: Rugged and mountainous terrain as in Jammu and Kashmir or lack of means of transport as in Arunachal Pradesh are primarily responsible for sparse population.
• Harsh climatic conditions: Snow-covered regions like Jammu and Kashmir and very hot regions such as Rajasthan invite less population.
• Plain terrain: Place with rich, fertile soil, good rainfall and moderate climate like Kerala and Uttar Pradesh make highly populated states.
• Economical factors: Regions become densely populated where ample scope of starting business and industries prevail. With good transport, trade and communication these regions become acutely dense.
• Political factors: States providing security, peace and stability also become very dense in the long run.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 6 Population

Notes of Chapter 6 Population

MCQ Test of Chapter 6 Population

Extra Questions for Class 9th: Ch 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy? Social Studies (S.St) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. What is a referendum?

Answer

A direct vote in which the entire electorate is asked to either accept or reject a proposal.

2. Mention one non-democratic feature of President Mugabe's Government ?

Answer

The ruler is not accountable.

3. In which country the women do not have the right to vote ?

Answer

Saudi Arabia.

4. Which party of Zimbabwe led the struggle for independence?

Answer

Zimbabwe African national union

5. Name one non-democratic country.

Answer

Pakistan.

6. Name the country where the people belonging to Russian minority find difficult to get the right to vote.

Answer

In Estonia, the people belonging to Russian minority find difficult to get the right to vote.

Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. How did General Pervez Musharraf become the President of Pakistan?

Answer

General Pervez Musharraf became the President of Pakistan by :

• In Pakistan, General Musharraf led a military coup in October 1999.

• He overthrew a democratically elected government and declared himself the 'Chief Executive' of the country.

• Later he changed his designation to President, in 2002 held a referendum in the country that granted him a five year extension.

2. 'Major decisions in a democracy must be taken by elected leaders.' Justify the statement by giving two reasons and a suitable example.

Answer

In Pakistan after passing a law election are held to national and state assemblies.

• So now elected representatives must have some powers but final power rests with military officers.

• Those who take final decisions are not elected by the people.

• They have formally elected a parliament and government but the real power is in the hands of those who are not elected.

3. Democracy is based on the principle of political equality. Give two instances of denial of equal right to vote.

Answer

Examples to prove that political equality is still missing in many countries are:

• In Saudi Arabia, women do not have the right to vote.

• In Fiji, the electoral system is such that the vote of an indigenous Fiji has more value than that of an Indian-Fiji.

• In Estonia, Russian minority find it difficult to get the right to vote.

4. Examine the three common features of democratic countries.

Answer

Following are the features of democratic countries :

• Freedom of speech, expression and thought is a feature of democracy.

• Elections are held at regular intervals and are fair and free.

• The dignity of the individual is recognised

5. Define democracy and elaborate any two common features of it.

Answer

Democracy is a form of government that allows people to choose their rulers.

Features :

• Only leaders elected by people rule the country.

• People have the freedom to express their views.

• Certain political freedom is enjoyed by the people.

Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Enlist the rights/freedoms which people do not enjoy in non-democratic countries.

Answer

The rights which the people of non-democratic

countries cannot enjoy are

• People cannot choose/change rulers.

• No real freedom to express opinions.

• No freedom to form political associations.

• No freedom to organise protests/action.

• No right to question authority.

2. Highlight any five unfair practices used by the President of Zimbabwe to win the elections.

Answer

Unfair practices used by the President

• His government has changed the constitution several times to increase his power.

• Opposition party workers are harassed and their meetings disrupted.

• Public protests and demonstrations against the government are declared illegal.

• Laws that limit the right to criticise the president were passed.

• Television and radio are controlled by the government.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

Notes of Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

MCQ Test of Chapter 2 What is Democracy? Why Democracy?

Study Material and Notes of Ch 3 Constitutional Design Class 9th Civics

Democratic Constitution in South Africa

Struggle against Apartheid

• Apartheid was the name of a system of racial discrimination unique to South Africa.

• This system was particularly oppressive for the blacks.
→ They were forbidden from living in white areas.

• Since 1950, the blacks, coloured and Indians fought against the apartheid system.

• The African National Congress (ANC) was the umbrella organisation that led the struggle against the policies of segregation.

• In 1964, Nelson Mandela and seven other leaders were sentenced to life imprisonment in 1964 for daring to oppose the apartheid regime in his country.

Towards a New Constitution

• As protests and struggles against apartheid had increased, the white regime changed its policies.

• After 28 years of imprisonment, Nelson Mandela released from jail.

• At the midnight of 26 April 1994, democracy was adopted as a form of government in South Africa.

• After two years, a constitution came out which gave to its citizens the most extensive rights available in any country.

Why do we need a Constitution?

• A constitution is necessary because:
→ It generates a degree of trust and coordination that is necessary for different kind of people to live together.
→ It specifies how the government will be constituted, who will have power to take which decisions.
→ It lays down limits on the powers of the government and tells us what the rights of the citizens are.
→ It expresses the aspirations of the people about creating a good society.

Making of the Indian Constitution

• In 1928, Motilal Nehru and eight other Congress leaders drafted a constitution for India.

• In 1931, the resolution at the Karachi session of the Indian National Congress dwelt on how independent India’s constitution should look like.

• Factors contributed to the making of our Constitution.
→ Ideals of French Revolution
→ The practice of parliamentary democracy in Britain
→ The Bill of Rights in the US
→ The socialist revolution in Russia

The Constituent Assembly

• In July 1946, Elections to the Constituent Assembly were held.
→ The drafting of the document called the constitution was done Constituent Assembly.
→ Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
→ In December 1946, the first meeting was held.

• After the country was divided into India and Pakistan, the Constituent Assembly also got divided.

• The Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949 but it came into effect on 26 January 1950.

• To mark this day we celebrate January 26 as Republic Day every year.

• The Constituent Assembly worked in a systematic, open and consensual manner.
→ First some basic principles were decided and agreed upon.
→ Then a Drafting Committee chaired by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar prepared a draft constitution for discussion.
→ More than two thousand amendments were considered.

Philosophy of the Constitution

• The Constitution begins with a short statement of its basic values which is called the Preamble to the constitution.

The preamble focuses on:
→ Justice, social, economic and political.
→ Liberty of thoughts, expression, belief, faith and worship.
→ Equality of status and of opportunity.
→ Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 3 Constitutional Design

Extra Questions of Chapter 3 Constitutional Design

MCQ Test of Chapter 3 Constitutional Design

Extra Questions for Class 9th: Ch 3 Constitutional Design Social Studies (S.St) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. What is meant by segregation?

Answer

The act of separating or a setting apart people from others or from the main body or group, especially when applied to separate people by race.

2. What would have happened in South Africa if the black majority had decided to take revenge on the whites for all their oppression and exploitation?

Answer

Violence would have erupted in South Africa. Bloodshed would have taken place. A great loss of life and property would have taken place.

3. What do you mean by political equality?

Answer

Every citizen is entitled to all the constitutional rights and freedom without making distinction of any kind like gender, race, status, religion, etc.

4. Which type of tactics did the white racist Government of South Africa use to continue to rule?

Answer

Detaining, torturing and killing thousands of blacks.

5. On what basis, the system of apartheid divided people?

Answer

Skin colour.

6. What do you mean by apartheid?

Answer

The system of racial discrimination practiced against blacks in South Africa.

7. On what charge was Nelson Mandela tried by the white South African Government?

Answer

Treason.

8. Define Constitution.

Answer

The Constitution is the system of beliefs and laws by while a country, state or organization is governed.

9. Name the great leader of Indian freedom movement who was not the member of the Indian Constituent Assembly.

Answer

Mahatma Gandhi, the great leader of Indian freedom movement was not the member of the Indian Constituent Assembly.

10. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt the constitution of India?

Answer

The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on 26th November 1949.

Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Explain the necessity of a Constitution in the newly born democracy in South Africa.

Answer

The necessities of a constitution in the newly born democracy in South Africa are:

• The oppressor and the oppressed were planning to live together as equals.

• It was not going to be easy to trust each other.

• Black majority was keen to ensure that the democratic principle of majority rule was not compromised.

• The Blacks wanted social and economic rights.

• White minority was keen to protect its privileges and property.

2. What is meant by the apartheid? How did the people of South Africa struggle against it?

Answer

Apartheid was the system of racial discrimination unique to South Africa. Efforts made by the people of South Africa against apartheid:

• Launched protest, marches and strikes.

• The African National Congress led the struggle.

• Many sensitive whites also joined the struggle with the African National Congress.

• Many workers’ unions and the Communist Party joined the movement.

3. Who led the struggle against apartheid? State any four practices followed in the system of apartheid in South Africa.

Answer

Nelson Mandela led the struggle against apartheid. Practices followed in the system of apartheid in South Africa:

• Blacks were forbidden from living in white areas.

• All public places were separate for the whites and blacks.

• They could not visit the Churches of whites.

• They could not form associations or protest against the terrible treatment

4. Explain with five facts of the transition of apartheid to democracy and multiracial government that took place in South Africa.

Answer

Transition that took place in South Africa:

• After the emergence of the new democratic South Africa, the black leaders appealed to the fellow blacks to forgive the whites for the atrocities they had committed while in power.

• They built a new South Africa based on equality of all races and men and women, on democratic values, social justice and human rights.

• The party that ruled through oppression and brutal killings and the party that led the freedom struggle, sat together to draw up a common constitution.

• After two years of discussion and debate, they came out with one of the finest constitutions, the world has ever had.

• This constitution gave to its citizens the most extensive rights available in any country. Together, they decided that in the search for a solution to the problems, nobody should be excluded, no one should be treated as a demon.

5. Explain any five characteristics of South African Constitution.

Answer

Characteristics of South African Constitution:

• Emergence of the new democratic South Africa under black leaders.

• Based on equality of all races, men and women.

• Extensive rights were given to all the citizens.

• Everybody becomes the part of the solution.

• Determination of the people to work together.

6. Highlight any five difficult circumstances under which the Indian Constitution was drawn up.

Answer

• Making a constitution for a huge and diverse country like India was not an easy task.

• The people of India at that time were emerging from the status of subjects to citizens.

• The country was born through a partition on the basis of religious differences.

• The British had left the princely states to decide their future on their own.

• At that time, future of the country did not look very secure.

• Makers of the constitution had anxieties about the present as well as the future.

• The vast size of the country and diversity was a matter of concern.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 3 Constitutional Design

Notes of Chapter 3 Constitutional Design

MCQ Test of Chapter 3 Constitutional Design

Study Material and Notes of Ch 4 Electoral Politics Class 9th Civics

An election is a process through which people choose their representatives at regular intervals.

What makes an election democratic?

• Everyone should have one vote and every vote should have equal value.

• Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections and should offer some real choice to the voters.

• Elections must be held regularly after every few years.

• The candidate preferred by the people should get elected.

• Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner where people can choose as they really wish.

What is system of elections in India?

General Election

• Elections are held in all constituencies at the same time, either on the same day or within a few days.

By-election

• Sometimes election is held only for one constituency or two to fill the vacancy caused by death or resignation of a member.

Electoral Constituencies

• The country is divided into different areas based on population for the purpose of elections which are called electoral constituencies.

• For Lok Sabha elections, the country is divided into 543 constituencies.

• Similarly, each state is divided into a specific number of Assembly constituencies.

Reserved Constituencies

• Some constituencies are reserved for people who belong to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.

Voter’s List

• The list of people who are eligible for voting is prepared by the Election Commission of India before election.

• In India, all the citizens aged 18 years and above has the right to vote, regardless of his or her caste, creed, colour, religion or gender.

Nomination of Candidates

• Anyone who can be a voter can also become a candidate in elections.

• However, minimum age of in order to be a candidate the minimum age is 25 years.

Election Campaign

• The campaigns take place for a two-week period between the announcement of the final list of candidates and the date of polling.

Polling and Counting of Votes

• The final stage of an election is the day when the voters cast or ‘poll’ their vote.

What Makes Elections in India Democratic?

Independent Election Commission

• In India, elections are conducted by an independent and very powerful Election Commission (EC) which enjoys the same kind of independence that the judiciary enjoys.

• The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) is appointed by the President of India.
→ But once appointed, CEC is not answerable to the President or the government.

Acceptance of election outcome

• The ruling parties routinely lose elections in India both at the national and state level.

• In India about half of the sitting MPs or MLAs lose elections.

Challenges to free and fair elections in India

• Candidates and parties with a lot of money may not be sure of their victory but they do enjoy a big and unfair advantage over smaller parties and independents.

• In some parts of the country, candidates with criminal connection have been able to push others out of the electoral race and to secure a ‘ticket’ from major parties.

• Some families tend to dominate political parties; tickets are distributed to relatives from these families.

• Very often elections offer little choice to ordinary citizens, for both the major parties are quite similar to each other both in policies and practice.

• Smaller parties and independent candidates suffer a huge disadvantage compared to bigger parties.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

Extra Questions of Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

MCQ Test of Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

Extra Questions for Class 9th: Ch 4 Electoral Politics Social Studies (S.St) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs):

1. Why do we need elections? Give one reason.
Answer

Through elections we can choose the party whose policies will guide the government and law making.

2. Who led the ‘Nyaya Yudh’?
Answer

Chaudhary Devi Lal.

3. What was the promise Chaudhary Devi Lal made to the farmers and small businessmen?
Answer

He would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen.

4. How are candidates elected in India?
Answer

The candidate who secures the highest number of votes is elected.

5. What is meant by ‘reserved constituency‘?
Answer

In a reserved constituency, only someone who belongs to the SC/ST or voter section can stand for election.

6. Which proof of identity can be shown at the time of Voting.
Answer

EPIC (Election Photo Identity Card).

7. What is the use of electronic voting machines?

Answer

To record the votes of people.

8. What is an election manifesto?
Answer

The pamphlet or the booklet issued by a political party that tells people about its programmes and policies.

Short Answer Questions (SAQs):

1. Name the movement led by Chaudhary Devi Lal of Haryana in 1987. What promise did he make to lure the voters before election? Which political party did he form?

Answer

The name of this movement was ‘Nyaya Yudh’.

• The popular promise was, if his party won the elections, his government would waive the loans of farmers and small businessmen.

• The name of the party that he formed was Lok Dal.

2. Why are elections considered essential for any representative democracy? Give three reasons.

Answer

• In an election, the voters are presented with many choices. They are free to choose their representative who will make laws for them and change them if they wish to do so.

• They can choose the one who will form the government and take major decisions.

• They can choose the party whose policies will guide the government in law-making

3. Are you in favour of universal adult franchise? Support your answer with arguments.

Answer

Yes, I am in favour of universal adult franchise. Arguments;

• It ensures Political equality

• It establishes a fair and true democratic government

• It makes a responsible government.

4. What is meant by ‘seats‘ the in election? Explain with example.

Answer

• In India, for Lok Sabha election, the country is divided into 543 constituencies.

• Similarly, each state is divided into a specific number of assembly constituencies. Each Parliamentary Constituency has within it several assembly constituencies.

• The same principle applies to Panchayat and municipal elections.

• Each village or town is divided into several ‘wards‘ that are like constituencies. Each ward elects one member of the village or the urban local body. Sometimes these constituencies are counted as ‘seats‘ for each constituency represents one seat in the assembly.

Example: When we say a party has won 20 seats. It means that candidates of that party won in 20 assembly constituencies in the state and that it has 20 MLAs in the state assembly.

5. Define the following:

(a) Universal Adult Franchise

(b) Election Photo Identify Card

Answer

(a) Universal Adult Franchise: It is a right granted to all adults–men or women, rich or poor, white or black, to vote for their representatives to run the government. In practice it means that everyone should have one vote and each vote should have equal value.

(b) Election Photo Identify Card: This is introduced by the government to stop rigging. The voters are required to carry this card when they go out to vote so that no one can vote for someone else. The government has tried to give this card to every person on the voters list. But the card is not yet compulsory for voting.

(c) Voter’s List: In a democratic election, the list of those who are eligible to vote is prepared much before the election and given to everyone. This list is officially called the electoral roll and is commonly known as the voters’ List.

Long Answer Questions (LAQs):

1. Describe the procedure for nomination of candidates for election in India.

Answer

Any one, who can be a voter, can also become a candidate in elections. Political parties nominate their candidates who get party symbol and support. Party‘s nomination is often called party ‘ticket‘.

• Every person who wishes to contest an election has to fill a ‘nomination form‘ and give some money as a ‘security deposit‘.

• Recently, a new system of declaration has been introduced on direction from the Supreme Court. Every candidate has to make a legal declaration, giving full details of

• Serious criminal cases pending against the candidate,

• Details of the assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family

• Educational qualifications of the candidate.

• This information has to be made public.

• This provides an opportunity to the voters to make their decision on the basis of the information provided by candidates.

2. Describe the rules and regulations regarding election campaign in India?

Answer

No party or candidate should do the following:

• Use government resources for campaigning.

• Bribe or threaten voters.

• Appeal to voters in the name of caste or religion

• Spend more than the prescribed amount more than 10 lakh in assembly election.

• If any candidate violates the above laws or rules his election can be rejected by the court.

3. Mention the eligibilities for Indian citizens to be the member of Parliament.

Answer

• The constitution stipulates that only Indian citizens of not less than 25 years of age are qualified to be the members of Lok Sabha. Similarly, only Indian citizens of not less than 30 years of age may be the members of the Rajya Sabha.

• The Parliament may prescribe additional qualifications under Article 84 of the constitution.

• But a citizen is disqualified to become a member of the Parliament:

(a) If he/she holds an office of profit under the union of a state government.

(b) If he/she is declared to be of unsound mind by a court.

(d) If he/she has lost his Indian citizenship through voluntary renunciation or through any other means.

(e) If he/she has any criminal records.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

Notes of Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

MCQ Test of Chapter 4 Electoral Politics

NCERT Solutions for Class 10th: पाठ 2 - संघवाद (Sanghvad) Loktantrik Rajniti

पृष्ठ संख्या -27

प्रश्नावली

1. भारत के खाली राजनीतिक नक्शे पर इन राज्यों की उपस्थिति दर्शाएँ : मणिपुर, सिक्किम, छत्तीसगढ़ और गोवा।

उत्तर

2. विश्व के खाली राजनीतिक मानचित्र पर भारत के अलावा संघीय शासन वाले तीन देशों की अवस्थिति बताएँ और उनके नक्शे को रंग से भरें।

उत्तर

3. भारत की संघीय व्यवस्था में बेल्जियम से मिलती-जुलती एक विशेषता और उससे अलग एक विशेषता को बताएँ।

उत्तर

भारत में, बेल्जियम की तरह ही, केंद्र सरकार अपनी शक्तियों को क्षेत्रीय सरकारों के साथ साझा करती है। हालांकि, भारत के विपरीत, बेल्जियम में केंद्रीय और राज्य सरकार के अलावा एक समुदाय सरकार का भी प्रावधान है।

4. शासन के संघीय और एकात्मक स्वरूपों में क्या-क्या मुख्य अंतर है? इसे उदाहरणों के माध्यम से स्पष्ट करें। |

उत्तर

संघीय शासन व्यवस्था में सर्वोच्च सत्ता केंद्रीय प्राधिकार और उसकी विभिन्न आनुषंगिक इकाइयों के बीच बँट जाती है। आम तौर पर संघीय व्यवस्था में दो स्तर पर सरकारें होती हैं। उदाहरण के लिए, भारत में केंद्र सरकार और विभिन्न राज्य सरकारों के बीच शक्तियों को बांटा गया है।

एकात्मक व्यवस्था में शासन का एक ही स्तर होता है और बाकी इकाइयाँ उसके अधीन होकर काम करती हैं। उदाहरण के लिए, श्रीलंका में राष्ट्रीय सरकार के पास सभी शक्तियां हैं।

5. 1992 के संविधान संशोधन के पहले और बाद के स्थानीय शासन के दो महत्वपूर्ण अंतरों को बताएँ।

उत्तर

1992 से पहले स्थानीय सरकारें-

• चुनाव राज्य द्वारा नियंत्रित किए गए थे और नियमित रूप से नहीं आयोजित किए जाते थे।

• स्थानीय सरकारों के पास अपनी खुद की कोई शक्ति या संसाधन नहीं था।

1992 के बाद स्थानीय सरकारें -

• नियमित रूप से चुनाव आयोजित करने के लिए जिम्मेदार एक स्वतंत्र राज्य चुनाव आयोग।

• राज्य सरकारों को स्थानीय सरकारी निकायों के साथ कुछ शक्तियां और राजस्व साझा करने की आवश्यकता है।

6. रिक्त स्थानों को भरें:

चूँकि अमरीका .................तरह का संघ है इसलिए वहाँ सभी इकाइयों को समान अधिकार है। संघीय सरकार के मुकाबले प्रांत ............... हैं। लेकिन भारत की संघीय प्रणाली .... ..... की है और यहाँ कुछ राज्यों को औरों से ज्यादा शक्तियाँ प्राप्त हैं।

उत्तर

चूँकि अमरीका में साथ आकर संघ बनाने कीतरह का संघ है इसलिए वहाँ सभी इकाइयों को समान अधिकार है। संघीय सरकार के मुकाबले प्रांत शक्तिशालीहैं। लेकिन भारत की संघीय प्रणाली साथ रहनेकी है और यहाँ कुछ राज्यों को औरों से ज्यादा शक्तियाँ प्राप्त हैं।

7. भारत की भाषा नीति पर नीचे तीन प्रतिक्रियाएँ दी गई हैं। इनमें से आप जिसे ठीक समझते हैं उसके पक्ष में तर्क और उदाहरण दें।

संगीता : प्रमुख भाषाओं को समाहित करने की नीति ने राष्ट्रीय एकता को मज़बूत किया है।

अरमान : भाषा के आधार पर राज्यों के गठन ने हमें बाँट दिया है। हम इसी कारण अपनी भाषा के प्रति सचेत हो गए हैं।

हरीश : इस नीति ने अन्य भाषाओं के ऊपर अँगरेजी के प्रभुत्व को मजबूत करने भर का काम किया है।

उत्तर

मैं संगीता की प्रतिक्रिया से सहमत हूं। यदि समझौते की नीति का पालन नहीं किया गया और राज्य भाषा के आधार पर नहीं बनाए गए, तो भारत का और विभाजन होगा। उदाहरण के लिए राष्ट्रीय भाषा के रूप में हिंदी को लागू करने से दक्षिण को उत्तर से दूर तोड़ दिया जाएगा और तमिलनाडु एक स्वतंत्र राष्ट्र बन जाएगा।

8. संघीय सरकार की एक विशिष्टता है:

(क) राष्ट्रीय सरकार अपने कुछ अधिकार प्रांतीय सरकारों को देती है।

(ख) अधिकार विधायिका, कार्यपालिका और न्यायपालिका के बीच बँट जाते हैं।

(ग) निर्वाचित पदाधिकारी ही सरकार में सर्वोच्च ताकत का उपयोग करते हैं।

(घ) सरकार की शक्ति शासन के विभिन्न स्तरों के बीच बँट जाती है।

उत्तर

(घ) सरकार की शक्ति शासन के विभिन्न स्तरों के बीच बँट जाती है।

9. भारतीय संविधान की विभिन्न सूचियों में दर्ज कुछ विषय यहाँ दिए गए हैं। इन्हें नीचे दी गई तालिका में संघीय सूची, राज्य सूची और समवर्ती सूची वाले समूहों में लिखें।

(क) रक्षा

(ख) पुलिस

(ग) कृषि

(घ) शिक्षा

(ङ) बैंकिंग

(च) वन

(छ) संचार

(ज) व्यापार

(झ) विवाह

संघीय सूची	-
राज्य सूची	-
समवर्ती सूची	-

उत्तर

संघीय सूची	रक्षा, बैंकिंग, संचार
राज्य सूची	पुलिस, कृषि, व्यापार
समवर्ती सूची	शिक्षा, वन, विवाह

पृष्ठ संख्या -28

10. नीचे भारत में शासन के विभिन्न स्तरों और उनके कानून बनाने के अधिकार-क्षेत्र के जोड़े दिए गए हैं। इनमें से कौन सा जोड़ा सही मेल वाला नहीं है?

(क)	राज्य सरकार	राज्य सूची
(ख)	केंद्र सरकार	संघीय सूची
(ग)	केंद्र और राज्य सरकार	समवर्ती सूची
(घ)	स्थानीय सरकार	अवशिष्ट अधिकार

उत्तर

(घ)

स्थानीय सरकार

अवशिष्ट अधिकार

11. सूची I और सूची II में मेल हुँढे और नीचे दिए गए कोड के आधार पर सही उत्तर चुनें।

सूची I	सूची II
1. भारतीय संघ	(अ) प्रधानमंत्री
2. राज्य	(ब) सरपंच
3. नगर निगम	(स) राज्यपाल
4, ग्राम पंचायत	(द) मेयर

	1	2	3	4
(सा)	द	अ	ब	स
(रे)	ब	स	द	अ
(गा)	अ	स	द	ब
(मा)	स	द	अ	ब

उत्तर

	1	2	3	4
(गा)	अ	स	द	ब

12. इन बयानों पर गौर करें:
(अ) संघीय व्यवस्था में संघ और प्रांतीय सरकारों के अधिकार स्पष्ट रूप से तय होते हैं। (ब)। भारत एक संघ है क्योंकि केंद्र और राज्य सरकारों के अधिकार संविधान में स्पष्ट
रूप से दर्ज हैं और अपने-अपने विषयों पर उनका स्पष्ट अधिकार है।
(स) श्रीलंका में संघीय व्यवस्था है क्योंकि उसे प्रांतों में बाँट दिया गया है।
(द) भारत में संघीय व्यवस्था नहीं रही क्योंकि राज्यों के कुछ अधिकार स्थानीय शासन
की इकाइयों में बाँट दिए गए हैं। ऊपर दिए गए बयानों में कौन-कौन सही हैं।

(सा) अ, ब और स
(रे) अ, स और द
(गा) अ और ब
(मा) ब और स

उत्तर

(गा) अ और ब

Notes of पाठ 2 - संघवाद

Extra Questions of पाठ 2 - संघवाद

MCQ Test of पाठ 2 - संघवाद

Notes of Chapter 1 The Earth in the Solar System Class 6th Geography

Celestial Bodies

• The Sun, the Moon and all other objects shining in the night sky are called Celestial Bodies.

• The moon, stars and planets cannot be seen during the daytime because the very bright light of the Sun does not allow us to see them.

Stars
• Stars are celestial bodies that are very big and hot. They are made up of gases. They have their own heat and light, which they emit in large amounts. The Sun is also a Star.

• Constellations are various patterns formed by different groups of stars. For example, Ursa Major or Big Bear.

• The North Star indicates the north direction. It is also called the Pole Star. It always remains in the same position in the sky. We can locate the Pole Star with the help of Saptarishi.

The Solar System
The Sun, eight planets, satellites and some other celestial bodies known as asteroids and meteoroids form the Solar System.

The Sun
• The Sun is in the centre of the solar system. It is huge and made up of extremely hot gases.

• It provides the pulling force that binds the solar system.

• It is the ultimate source of heat and light for the solar system.

Planets
• Planets are celestial bodies that do not have their own heat and light. They are lit by the light of the stars. Earth is a planet too. It gets all its heat and light from the Sun, our nearest star.

• There are eight planets in our Solar System- Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.

The Earth
• It is the fifth largest planet by size and is slightly flattened at the poles.

• Its shape is described as a Geoid which means an Earth-like shape.

• It is a unique planet in the Solar System because:
→ Conditions favourable to support life are probably found only on the earth.
→ It is neither too hot nor too cold.
→ It has water and air, which are very essential for our survival.
→ The air has life supporting gases like oxygen.

• From the outer space, the Earth appears blue because its two-thirds surface is covered by water. It is, therefore, called a blue planet.

Satellite
• It is a celestial body that moves around the planets in the same way as the planets move around the sun.

• A human-made satellite is an artificial body. It is designed by scientists to gather information about the universe or for communication.

• It is carried by rocket and placed in the orbit around the earth.

The Moon
• The Moon is a satellite and moves around the Earth.

• The only satellite of Earth.

• Its diameter is only one-quarter that of the earth.

• It appears so big because it is nearer to Earth than other celestial bodies.

• It moves around the Earth in about 27 days and takes exactly the same time to complete one spin. Hence, only one side of the moon is visible to us on the earth.

• It has mountains, plains and depressions on its surface.

• The moon appears at different times, in different shapes and at different positions.

• The Full Moon can be seen only once in about a month’s time on the Full Moon night or Poornima.

• A fortnight later, it cannot be seen at all. It is the New Moon night or Amavasya.

Asteroids

• These are numerous tiny bodies which also move around the Sun-like stars, planets and satellites.

• They are found between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter.

Meteoroids

• These are small pieces of rocks which move around the Sun.

• Sometimes they come near the earth and tend to drop upon it.

• During this process due to friction with the air, they get heated up and burn, causing a flash of light.

• Sometimes, a meteor without being completely burnt falls on the earth and creates a hollow.

Galaxy

• It is a huge system of billions of stars, and clouds of dust and gases.

• Our Solar System is a part of the Milky Way galaxy.

• Millions of such galaxies make up the Universe.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 1 The Earth in the Solar System

Notes of Chapter 2 Globe: Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6th Geography

Globe

• Globe is a true model (miniature form) of the earth Globes may be of varying size and type – big ones, which cannot be carried easily, small pocket globes, and globe-like balloons, which can be inflated and are handy and carried with ease.

• The globe is not fixed. It can be rotated the same way as a top spin or a potter’s wheel is rotated. On the globe, countries, continents and oceans are shown in their correct size.

The Poles

The top and bottom of the earth are called the Poles. They are similar to the top and bottom of the globe. The top is called the North Pole and the bottom is called the South Pole.

Axis

The way a glove rotates around the pivots, the earth also rotates around an imaginary line. The imaginary line around which the earth rotates is called the axis of the earth.

Equator

An imaginary line running on the globe divides it into two equal parts. This line is known as the equator. The northern half of the earth is known as the Northern Hemisphere and the southern half is known as the Southern Hemisphere.

Parallels of latitudes

All parallel circles from the equator up to the poles are called parallels of latitudes. Latitudes are measured in degrees.

• Important parallels of latitudes:
→ Tropic of Cancer (23½° N) in the Northern Hemisphere.
→ Tropic of Capricorn (23½° S) in the Southern Hemisphere.
→ Arctic Circle at 66½° north of the equator.
→ Antarctic Circle at 66½° south of the equator.

Heat zones of the earth

Torrid Zone

The mid-day sun is exactly overhead at least once a year on all latitudes in between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. This area, therefore, receives the maximum heat and is called the Torrid Zone.

Temperate Zones

Beyond the tropics, the mid-day sun is never overhead. This happens because the sun rays come at a slant in these areas. So, this part of the earth receives mild temperature. These zones are called the Temperate Zones.

Frigid Zones

Areas between the Arctic Circle and the North Pole and those between the Antarctic Circle and the South Pole receive sun rays at a big slant. Due to this, the sun is never much above the horizon. So, this part of the earth receives the least amount of heat and remains very cold. These zones are called Frigid Zones.

Longitudes

• The imaginary lines which run from one pole to another are called longitudes.

• These are also called meridians of longitude.

• The earth has been divided into 1800 longitudes towards the east and 1800 longitudes towards the west.

• The Prime Meridian and 1800 longitude together divide the earth into two equal halves.

→ Both 1800 east and 1800 west are on the same line.

Use of Latitudes and Longitudes

• Latitudes and longitudes help us in finding the exact location of a place on the earth.

Longitude and Time

We know that the earth takes about 24 hours to make one rotation on its axis.

→ Thus, the sunrise and the sunset easily tell us about morning and evening times.

• When the sun is directly overhead, it is mid-day and you can match your watch to 12 noon at this time.

• The sun casts the smallest shadow when it is directly overhead.

→ But the relative position of the sun in sky keeps on changing as we move across the globe either from east to west or vice-versa.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 2 Globe: Latitudes and Longitudes

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs): 1 Mark

Q1. What happens when magnesium ribbon burns in air?

Answer

When magnesium ribbon burns in air, it combines with the oxygen to form magnesium oxide.

2Mg(s) + O₂ (g) → 2MgO(s)

Q2. On what chemical law, balancing of chemical equation is based?

Answer

Balancing of a chemical equation is based on the law of conservation of mass.

Q3. Name the gas evolved when zinc reacts with dil. HCl.

Answer

Hydrogen gas is evolved.

Q4. Name and state the law which is kept in mind while we balance a chemical equation.

Answer

Law of conservation of mass. Mass can neither be created nor be destroyed during a chemical reaction.

Q5. Write the chemical equation for reactions that takes place when lead nitrate and potassium iodide solutions are mixed.

Answer

Pb(NO₃)₂ + 2KI → 2KNO₃ + PbI₂

Lead nitrate + Potassium iodide → Potassium nitrate + Leadiodide

Q6. Why is photosynthesis considered an endothermic reaction?

Answer

The photosynthesis is considered an endothermic reaction because heat is absorbed in this process.

Q7. What is percipitate?.

Answer

Percipitate is insoluble metal compound formed after reaction.

Short Answer Questions-I (SAQs-I): 2 Marks

Q1. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it? Write chemical equation for the reaction involved.

Answer

Iron is more reactive than copper so it displaces copper from copper sulphate solution and forms iron sulphate, hence the colour of solution changes.

Equation: Fe + CuSO₄ (aq) → FeSO₄ (aq) + CuO

Q2. State reason for the following:

(i) Potato chips manufactures fill the packet of chips with nitrogen gas.

(ii) Iron articles are shining when new, but get coated with a reddish brown powder, when left for some time.

Answer

(i) Potato chips manufactures fill the packet of chips with nitrogen gas to prevent rancidity.

(ii) Rusting and corrosion.

Q3. A student prepares aqueous solutions of the following salts: Copper sulphate : ferrous sulphate, Sodium sulphate, barium chloride. Write the colour of each solution thus formed.

Answer

Copper sulphate — Green

Ferrous sulphate — Pale green

Sodium sulphate — Milky white

Barium chloride — White

Q4. Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give, aluminium chloride and barium sulphate.

(i) State the two types in which the above reaction can be classified.

(ii) Translate the above statement into a chemical equation.

Answer

(i) Double displacement reaction and Precipitation reaction.

(ii) 3BaCl₂ + Al₂(SO₄)₃ → 2AlCl₃ + 3BaSO₄(↓)

Short Answer Questions-II (SAQs-II): 3 Marks

Q1. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light and electricity.

Answer

(i) Decomposition by heat of lead nitrate.

(ii) Decomposition by light of Silver Chloride

(iii) Decomposition by electricity of Water

Q2. State the kind of chemical reactions in the following examples in terms of loss and gain of energy:
(i) Digestion of food in stomach
(ii) Combustion of coal in air
(iii) Heating of limestone.

Answer

Digestion of food in Stomach

C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy

Energy is released in the process. It is exothermic reaction.

Combustion of Coal

Coal is Carbon. It is a combustion reaction.

C+O₂→CO₂

Energy is released in the process hence it is known as exothermic reaction.

Heating of Limestone.

Limestone is calcium carbonate. Ca₂CO₃

Energy is absorbed in the process. So, the reaction is endothermic reaction.

Q3. A solution of a substance 'X' is used for testing carbon dioxide. Write the equation of the reaction of X with carbon dioxide. (b) How is X obtained? Write chemical equation.

Answer

(a) Substance X is lime water which is aqueous solution of Calcium Hydroxide.

Ca(OH)₂ (aq)+CO₂ (g)→CaCO₃ (s)+H₂O(l)

When limewater reacts with Carbon di oxide, it turns milky, that is Calcium Hydroxide.

(b) Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produced slaked time (calcium hydroxide) releasing a large amount of heat.

Q4. Write the steps for balancing the chemical equation for the formation of ammonia by the combination of nitrogen and hydrogen.

Answer

First, we write the skeletal chemical equation for the process.

N₂+H₂→NH₃

Examine the number of atoms of different elements present in the unbalanced equation.

In the above reaction both the sides Nitrogen and Oxygen both are unbalanced.

To balance hydrogen, H₂ is multiplied by 3 LHS. It makes 6H-atoms on the left hand side.

Now, to balance hydrogen, in RHS, 2 is multiplied to NH3.

Nitrogen is balanced automatically.

N₂ (g)+3H₂ (g)→2NH₃ (g)

Long Answer Questions (LAQs): 5 Marks

Q1. (a) Explain the term "rancidity." Name the type of chemical reaction responsible for causing rancidity and define it. (b) Write three methods for preventing rancidity of food.

Answer

We have seen food getting contaminated and having an unpleasant smell if it is left open in summer. In a hot weather, Oil present in food get oxidized and become Rancid. Such food is not recommended for consumption.

The food is getting oxidized so the reaction is oxidation reaction.

Methods for preventing food from getting oxidized are:-

(a) Food is kept in cool place like refrigerator.

(b) Packaging should be air tight

Q2. (a) List any three observations that determine that a chemical reaction has taken place. Also list three informations that cannot be obtained about a chemical reaction, merely by its chemical equation.

(b) Balance the following chemical equations.

(i) Fe + H₂O → Fe₃O₄ + H₂

(ii) CO₂ + H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆+O₂

Answer

The three observations are

(i) Change of color

(ii) Change of temperature

(iii) Evolution of Gas

The three informations are

Atmospheric conditions

(i) Catalyst involved

(ii) Physical states of reactants and products

Balancing Equations

(i) 3Fe+4H₂O→Fe₃O₄+4H₂

(ii) 6CO₂+6H₂O→C₆H₁₂O₆+6O₂

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

Notes of Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations

MCQ Test of Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 2 Acids, Bases and Salts (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs): 1 Mark

Q1. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal?

Answer

Hydrogen gas.

Q2. Name a salt which does not contain water of crystallisation.

Answer

Baking soda.

Q3. Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.

Answer

CaSO₄. ½H₂O +1½ H₂O → CaSO₄.2H₂O

Plaster of Paris: CaSO₄. ½H₂O

Gypsum: CaSO₄.2H₂O

Q4. What would be the colour of litmus in a solution of sodium carbonate?

Answer

The colour of litmus in a solution of sodium carbonate is blue.

Q5. Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.

Answer

Sodium carbonate.

Short Answer Questions-I (SAQs-I): 2 Marks

Q1. Classify the following into acidic oxides anc basic oxides : Na₂O, SO₂, MgO, CO₂

Answer

Acidic oxides — SO₂, CO₂

Basic oxides — Na₂O, MgO₂

Q2. What is the change in pH values of milk when it changes into curd? Explain.

Answer

pH decrease by the presence of lactic acid in curd because acids generally have a low pH value. Hence, pH will decrease when milk changes into curd.

Q3.What is cause of decay of tooth? What is the pH of mouth required.

Answer

The enamel of our tooth started getting damaged when pH of tooth is less than 5.5. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5 . Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth after eating. Toothpaste is basic in nature is used to neutralize the acid.

Q4. A white powder is added while baking breads and cakes to make them soft and fluffy. What is the name of the powder? What are the main ingredients in it? What are the functions of each ingredient?

Answer

Baking powder.

Baking soda and an edible acid like tartaric acid. Baking soda (NaHCO₃) is used to release CO₂ gas when heated. Tartaric acid is used to avoid the bitter taste by reacting with the Na₂CO₃ formed.

Short Answer Questions-II (SAQs-II): 3 Marks

Q1. (a) What is the action of litmus on:

(i) dry ammonia gas

(ii) solution of ammonia gas in water

(b) State the observations you would make on adding sodium hydroxide to aqueous solution of

(i) ferrous sulphate

(ii) aluminium chloride. Give balanced chemical equations.

Answer

(a) (i) No change in colour

(ii) Red litmus turns blue

(b) (i) 2NaOH(aq) + FeSO₄(aq) → Fe(OH)₂(s) + Na₂SO₄(aq)

Sodium hydroxide + Ferrous sulphate → Ferrous hydroxide + Sodium Sulphate

(ii) 3NaOH(aq) + AlCl₃(aq) → Al(OH)₃(s) + NaCl(aq)

Sodium hydroxide + Aluminium chloride → Aluminium hydroxide + Sodium chloride

Q2. Name the three products of 'chlor-alkali process. Write one commercially or industrially important material each that can be prepared from each of these products.

Answer

The three products are: Sodium hydroxide (NaOH), Chlorine (Cl₂) and Hydrogen (H₂).

NaOH: used in making soaps and detergents and also in paper making or artificial fibres.

Cl₂: PVC, pesticides, CFCs.

H₂: fuels, margarine, NH₃ for fertilizers.

Q3. Draw a neat and labelled diagram to show the following activity: Action of dilute sulphuric acid on zinc granules

(i) Name the gas evolved.

(ii) How will you test for the gas.

Answer

(i) The gas evolved is hydrogen.

(ii) Zn(s) + H₂SO₄(aq) → ZnSO₄(aq) + H₂(g)

Test for H₂ gas: The presence of H₂ gas can be tested by passing the gas through soap solution and then bringing a burning splinter near the soap bubbles filled with the gas. If the gas burns with a pop sound, it is hydrogen.

Long Answer Questions (LAQs): 5 Marks

1. (i) Explain why is hydrochloric acid a strong acid and acetic acid, a weak acid. How can it be verified?

(ii) Explain why aqueous solution of an acid conducts electricity.

(iii) You have four solutions A, B, C and D. The pH of solution A is 6, B is 9, C is 12 and D is 7.

(a) Identify the most acidic and most basic solutions.

(b) Arrange the above four solutions in the increasing order of H+ ion concentration.

Answer

(i) HCI will give rise to more H⁺ ions and CH₃COOH produces less H⁺ ions on dissociation. The colour of pH paper depends on the concentration of H⁺ ion. Colour becomes red for high H⁺ concentration.

(ii) Aqueous solution of acids have H⁺ which carry electric current through the solution.

(iii) (a) Most acidic: A and Most basic: C

(b) C, B, D, A/C < B < D < A

2. Give suitable reasons for the following statements:

(i) Rain water conducts electricity but distilled water does not.

(ii) We feel burning sensation in the stomach when we over eat.

(iii) A tarnished copper vessel regains its shine when rubbed with lemon.

(iv) The crystals of washing soda change to white powder on exposure to air.

(v) An aqueous solution of sodium chloride is neutral but an aqueous solution of sodium carbonate is basic.

Answer

(i) Distilled water is a pure form of water, is neither acidic nor basic in nature. So distilled water does not dissociate into ions, since, conduction of electricity requires free ions so, distilled water does not conduct electricity. While rain water being an impure form of water, contains many ionic species. These ions are responsible for electrical conductivity of rain water.

(ii) Because when we over eat too much HCI is produced in our stomach which causes burning sensation.

(iii) Copper vessels tarnish is due to the formation of basic copper carbonate [Cu₂(OH)₂CO₃] which gets neutralized when rubbed with lemon and the copper vessel regains its shine.

(iv) Washing soda (sodium carbonate decahydrate), Na₂CO₃.10H₂O when exposed to air, it loses 10 molecules of water and changes to white powder.

(v) Sodium chloride is a salt of strong acid HCI and strong base NaOH, so it is neutral. Sodium carbonate is a salt of weak acid H₂CO₃ and strong base NaOH, so it is basic.

NaCI + H₂O → NaOH + HCI

Na₂CO₃ + H₂O → NaOH + H₂CO₃

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Notes of Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

MCQ Test of Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts

Notes of Chapter 1 Geography as a Discipline Class 11th Geography

Why should we study geography?

• We live on the surface of the earth.

• Our lives are affected by our surroundings in many ways.

• We depend on the resources to sustain ourselves in the surrounding areas.

• Primitive societies subsisted on ‘natural means of subsistence’.

• To know about all the phenomena which vary over space.

• To learn about the diverse lands and people.

• To understand the changes which have taken place over time.

• To investigate into the causes responsible for creating such variations over time and space.

• To understand the globe converted into maps and have a visual sense of the earth’s surface.

What is geography?

• Geography is the description of the earth.
→ As the earth has variations in its physical, social and cultural features too.

• The term geography was first coined by Eratosthenese, a Greek scholar (276-194 BC.).

• The word has been derived from two roots from Greek language geo (earth) and graphos (description).

Study area of Geography

• Geography is different from other sciences in its subject matter and methodology but at the same time, it is closely related to other disciplines.

• Geographers do not study only the variations in the phenomena over the earth’s surface but also study the associations with the other factors which cause these variations.

• The geographical phenomena, both the physical and human, are not static but highly dynamic.
→ They change over time as a result of the interactive processes between ever-changing earth and untiring and ever-active human beings.

• Primitive human societies were directly dependent on their immediate environment.

• Present societies have modified their natural environment by inventing and using technology and thus, have expanded the horizon of their operation by appropriating and utilising the resources provided by nature.
→ With the help of technology, human beings moved from the stage of necessity to a stage of freedom.

• As a social science discipline, geography studies the ‘spatial organisation’ and ‘spatial integration’.

Geography as a discipline is concerned with three sets of questions:

• Some questions are related to the identification of the patterns of natural and cultural features as found over the surface of the earth. These are the
questions about what?

• Some questions are related to the distribution of the natural and human/cultural features over the surface of the earth. These are the questions about
where?

• The third question is related to the explanation or the causal relationships between features and the processes and phenomena. This aspect of geography is related to the question, why?

Geography as an Integrating Discipline

• Geography as an integrating discipline has interface with numerous natural and social sciences.

• Geography not only takes note of the differences in the phenomena from place to place but integrates them holistically which may be different at other places.

• Geography influences historical events.

• In traditional warfare, countries with large size in area, gain time at the cost of space.

• In India, Himalayas have acted as great barriers and provided protection but the passes provided routes to the migrants and invaders from Central Asia.
→ The sea coast has encouraged contact with people from East and Southeast Asia, Europe and Africa.

Physical Geography and Natural Sciences

• All the branches of physical geography, have connection with natural sciences.

• The traditional physical geography is linked with geology, meteorology, hydrology and pedology, and thus, geomorphology, climatology, oceanography and soil geography respectively have very close link with the natural sciences as these derive their data from these sciences.

• Bio-Geography is closely related to botany, zoology as well as ecology as human beings are located in different locational niche.

• The cartographic and quantitative techniques require sufficient proficiency in mathematics, statistics and econometrics.

Geography and Social Sciences

• The history of geographical thought as mother branch of geography is included universally in its curricula.

• All the social science disciplines, viz. sociology, political science, economics and demography study different aspects of social reality.

• Geography and Civics: The core concern of political science is territory, people and sovereignty while political geography is also interested in the study of the state as a spatial unit as well as people and their political behaviour.

• Geography and Economics: Economics deals with basic attributes of the economy such as production, distribution, exchange and consumption are part of economic geography.

Branches of Geography (Based of Systematic Approach)

1. Physical Geography
(i) Geomorphology
(ii) Climatology
(iii) Hydrology
(iv) Soil Geography

2. Human Geography
(i) Social/Cultural Geography
(ii) Population and Settlement Geography (Rural and Urban).
(iii) Economic Geography
(iv) Historical Geography
(v) Political Geography

3. Biogeography
(i) Plant Geography
(ii) Zoo Geography
(iii) Ecology /Ecosystem
(iv) Environmental Geography

Branches of Geography (Based on Regional Approach)

1. Regional Studies/Area Studies Comprising Macro, Meso and Micro Regional Studies
2. Regional Planning Comprising Country/Rural and Town/ Urban Planning
3. Regional Development
4. Regional Analysis

There are two aspects which are common to every discipline, these are:
(i) Philosophy
(a) Geographical Thought
(b) Land and Human Interaction/Human Ecology
(ii) Methods and Techniques
(a) Cartography including Computer
Cartography
(b) Quantitative Techniques/Statistical Techniques
(c) Field Survey Methods
(d) Geo-informatics comprising techniques such as Remote Sensing, GIS, GPS, etc.

Physical Geography and Importance

Physical geography includes the study of:
• lithosphere (landforms, drainage, relief and physiography)
• atmosphere (its composition, structure, elements and controls of weather and climate; temperature, pressure, winds, precipitation, climatic types, etc.)
• hydrosphere (oceans, seas, lakes and associated features with water realm)
• biosphere ( life forms including human being and macro-organism and their sustaining mechanism, viz. food chain, ecological parameters and ecological balance).

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 1 Geography as a Discipline

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 3 Metals and Non-Metals (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs): 1 Mark

Q1. Why does Calcium floats in water?

Answer
Calcium floats in water due to hydrogen gas, evolved hydrogen gas got stricken to the calcium surface, hydrogen being lighter gas than water, make calcium float.

Q2. Name two metals which can evolve hydrogen gas by reacting with very dilute nitric acid?

Answer
Magnesium and Manganese.

Q3. How graphite is different any other non-metals?

Answer
Graphite conducts electricity.

Q4. Name the type of bond formed, when metals reacts with other metallic salts?

Answer
Ionic bond

Q5. What is the name of alloys of mercury?

Answer
Amalgam

Short Answer Questions-I (SAQs-I): 2 Marks

Q1. What is thermite reaction? What is its application?

Answer
Iron is displaced from its oxide using Alumunium. The reaction is highly exothermic.

Fe₂O₃ (s)+2Al(s)→Fe(l)+Al₂O₃ (s)+Heat

The heat obtained is so high that iron is obtained in molten form.

This reaction is used to join railway tracks or cracked machine parts.

Q2. Why ionic compounds are having higher melting and boiling point?

Answer
Ionic compounds are having higher melting and boiling point because they are bonded together by strong electrostatic force of attraction. Their particles are strongly bonded together. It is difficult to break their strong force of attraction. So, it requires a very high energy and hence temperature to increase the inter molecular space.

Q3. Write balanced chemical equations for

ZnCO₃ is heated in absence of Oxygen

Zinc Oxide reduced to zinc by reducing by coke

Answer
(i)

(ii) ZnO+C→CO+Zn

Q5. A metal X left in moist air for a longer time, loses its shiny brown surface and gains a green coat. Why has this happened ? Name and give the chemical formula of this given coloured compound and identify the metal. List two ways to prevent this process.

Answer
The metal has corroded because of being exposed to moist air. Green compound is basic copper carbonate [CuCO₃.Cu(OH)₂] . The metal is copper.

Two ways to prevent this process : Painting, Greasing, Oiling, Galvanizing.

Short Answer Questions-II (SAQs-II): 3 Marks

Q1. An element A reacts with water to form a compound B which is used in white washing. The compound B which is used white washing. The compound B on heating forms an oxide C which on treatment with water gives back B. Identify A,B and C and give reaction involved.

Answer
Element A is Calcium (ca, when it reacts with water, it form Calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)₂, which is used in white washing.

Ca+2H₂O→Ca(OH)₂+H₂ (g)

Compound B on heating gives CaO

Therefore, C is Calcium Oxide (CaO).

Ca(OH)₂→CaO+H₂O

CaO+H₂O→Ca(OH)₂

Q2. Two Ores on Heating, A gives CO₂, whereas ore B gives SO₂. Explain the processes with help of balanced chemical equation, which is used to convert ores A and B into their oxide ores with an example.

Answer
Ore A is Carbonate Ore,

The process involved in converting ores

Calcination: The Carbonate ore is heated strongly in absence of air.

ZnCO₃→ZnO+CO₂

Roasting: The sulphide ore is heated strongly in presence of excess of air, this is known as roasting.

ZnSO₃→ZnO+SO₂

Q3. Explain the formation of MgO by transfer of Electrons.

Answer
Formation of MgO

Magnesium losses two electrons, and forms Magnesium ions, to complete its octet.

Mg→Mg²⁺+2e^-

Oxygen gains that two electrons to become O^2-

Mg²⁺+O^2-→MgO

Q4. Explain any 3 methods used for preventing Corrosion of metals?

Answer
Alloying: Mixing of the metal with another metal or non-metal can help in preventing Corrosion of metals.

Example:- alloying Iron with Carbon to form steel

Electroplating: Platting a layer of Chromium over the surface of metal can help in preventing metals from getting corroded.

Galvanization: Iron metal is dipped in molten zinc, which forms a layer of zinc over Iron.

Long Answer Questions (LAQs): 5 Marks

Q1. (a) What concentration of Ore means?

(b) Explain Electrolytic Refining of metals which is obtained?

Answer

(a) Concentration or enrichment of ore means to remove impurities (gauge) particles from the ore particles.

(b) Electrolytic refining is the process of further refining or purification of obtained metal from the metallurgical processes.

In this process

Initial Arrangement:

Anode is Impure block of Copper which is to be refined.

Cathode is pure strip of Copper metal.

Electrolyte is solution of Copper Sulphate.

Working:

At Anode:

Copper from impure block of copper gains positive charge and generated Copper ions go to electrolytic solution of copper sulphate.

At Cathode:

Positively charged copper ions from electrolytic solution of copper sulphate goes to Cathode. It is accumulated at Cathode.

Q2. (a) When calcium metal is added to water, the gas evolved does not catch fire but the same gas evolved on adding potassium metal to water catches fire. Explain why ?

(b) Name a metal for each case :

(i) It displaces hydrogen gas from nitric acid.

(ii) It does not react with any physical state of water.

(iii) It does not react with cold as well as hot water but reacts with steam.

Answer

(a) In both cases, the gas evolved is H₂. When calcium reacts with water the heat evolved is not sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire. On the other hand, potassium reacts with water violently and lot of heat is evolved which is sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire.

(b) (i) Zinc

(ii) Copper

(iii) Aluminium

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 3 Metals and Non-Metals

Notes of Chapter 3 Metals and Non-Metals

MCQ Test of Chapter 3 Metals and Non-Metals

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 4 Carbon and its Compounds (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs): 1 Mark

Q1. Write the next homologous series compounds of following compounds

C₂H₄,C₃H₇OH

Answer

C₃H₆, C₄H₉OH

Q2. Identify the functional group in following compound.

Answer

(i) Aldehyde (ii) Ketone

Q3. What is the general mathematical formula for Alkyne?

Answer

C_nH_(2n-2)

Q4. Name the process by which unsaturated Carbon compounds are converted into Saturated Carbon compounds.

Answer

Halogenation

Q5. Write chemical equations representing methane Combustion?

Answer

CH₄+O₂→CO₂+H₂O+Energy

Short Answer Questions-I (SAQs-I): 2 Marks

Q1. Give a chemical test to distinguish between butter and cooking oil.

Answer

Butter and cooking oil can be distinguished by using alkaline KMnO₄. Being unsaturated only cooking oil decolourises the pink colour of alkaline KMnO₄ where as butter does not, because it is saturated. Bromine water test is also used where brown colour is discharged by the cooking oil.

Q2. Give a chemical test to distinguish between butter and cooking oil.

Answer

Q3. An organic compound 'X' reacts with sodium metal to form sodium ethoxide and a gas 'Y'. (a) Identify 'X' and 'Y'. (b) What happens when ethanol is heated at 443 K with conc. H₂SO₄?

Answer

Q4. What is meant by saponification? Give an example.

Answer

It is the reaction that forms Soap. When an ester reacts with water in presence of a base, a salt of carboxylic acid, and an alcohol are produced. Such a reaction is called saponification.

For example : When ethyl ethanoate is heated with a solution of sodium hydroxide, sodium ethanoate and ethanol are produced.

CH₃COOC₂H₅+NaOH→CH₃COONa⁺C₂H₅OH

Short Answer Questions-II (SAQs-II): 3 Marks

Q1. Draw the structures of the following compounds and identify the functional group present in them (i) Butanoic acid (ii) Bromopropane (iii) Butyne

Answer

(i) Functional Group is Carboxylic Acid

(ii) Functional Group is Bromine.

(iii) Functional Group is Carbon Carbon triple bond. C≡C

Q2. What is meant by Isomers ? Draw the structure of two isomers of butane, C₄H₁₀. Explain why we cannot have isomers of first three members of alkane series.

Answer

Isomers are the compounds which have the same molecular formula but different structural formula.

We cannot have isomers of the first three members of the alkane series because of the following laws of isomers:

The parent chain should have the most number of carbon atoms.

The branching cannot be done from the first on the last atom carbon atom of the structure.

Q3. What are covalent compounds ? Why are they different from ionic compounds? List their three characteristics properties.

Answer

(a) Covalent compounds are those compounds which are formed by sharing of electrons between two atoms/which contain covalent bonds.

(b) Covalent compounds are different from ionic compounds because the ionic compounds are formed by the transference of electrons.

(i) Generally have low melting and boiling points.

(ii) Generally insoluble or less soluble in water but soluble in organic solvents.

(iii)Do not conduct electricity.

Q4. Why homologous series of carbon compounds are so called ? Write chemical formula of two consecutive members of a homologous series and state the part of these compounds that determines their (i) physical properties, and (ii) chemical properties.

Answer

Carbon compounds are named as homologous series because they are derived from same general formula, having same functional group, similar chemical properties and show gradation in physical properties. Each member differs from successive member by —CH₂

The two consecutive members of alkane series are methane (CH₄) and ethane (C₂H₆).

These members of a homologous series show gradual change in their physical properties with increase in molecular masses. Their molecular masses and functional groups determine their physical and chemical properties, respectively.

Long Answer Questions (LAQs): 5 Marks

Q1. What are micelles ? Why does it form when soap is added to water? Will a micelle be formed in other solvents such as ethanol also ? State briefly how the formation of micelles helps to clean the clothes having oily spots.

Answer

Soap molecules have two ends-at one end is the hydrocarbon chain which is water repellent, whereas at the other end there is the ionic part which is water soluble end. When soap is dissolved in water if forms a group of many molecules, known as micelle.

These micelles are formed because their hydrocarbon chains come together and the polar ends are projected outwards.

Micelle formation in ethanol will not occur because the hydrocarbon chain end of the soap will dissolve in ethanol.

Soaps in the form of micelle are able to dean dirty clothes having oily spots, as the oily dirt is collected in the centre of the micelle, which forms an emulsion in water and on rinsing, the water washes away the micelles with dirt attached to them.

Q2. Make the structure of methane by showing sharing of electrons between carbon and hydrogen atoms. How could you convert methane into chloroform by substitution reaction? Explain with the help of chemical reactions.

Answer

Hydrogen atoms can form one covalent bond, while carbon atoms can form four covalent bonds. Four pairs of electrons are shared in a methane molecule (CH₄). When a mixture of methane and chlorine is exposed to ultraviolet light - typically sunlight-a substitution reaction occurs and the organic product is chloromethane.

CH₄ + Cl₂→ CH₃Cl + HCl

However, the reaction doesn't stop there, and all the hydrogens in the methane can in turn be replaced by Cl.

CH₄ + Cl₂→ CH₃Cl + HCl

CH₃Cl + Cl₂→ CH₂Cl₂ + HCl

CH₃Cl + Cl₂→ CHCl₃ + HCl

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds

Notes of Chapter 4 Carbon and its Compounds

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 5 Periodic Classification of Elements (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs): 1 Mark

Q1. Why was the system of classification of elements into triads not found suitable ?

Answer

It is because all the elements discovered at that time could not be classified into triads.

Q2. What is the total number of period in periodic table?

Answer

There are seven periods in modern periodic table.

Q3. According to which periodic table, every eight element repeat its property?

Answer

Newlands Octave

Q4. Why Doberiner triad theory failed?

Answer

Only three triads were discovered.

Q5. Which element was named as Eka–aluminium earlier?

Answer

Gallium

Short Answer Questions-I (SAQs-I): 2 Marks

Q1. How does the electronic configuration of an atom of an element relate to its position in the modern periodic table ? Explain with one example.

Answer

The position of elements depends upon number of valence electrons which depend upon electronic configuration. Those elements which have same valence electrons, occupy same group. Those elements which have one valence electron belong to group 1. Elements which have two valence electrons belong to group 2. Period number is equal to the number of shells. Example : Atomic number of sodium (Na) is 11, so electronic configuration will be 2, 8, 1. Sodium has one valence electron in valence shell so it belongs to group 1. As sodium has three shells, so it belongs to 3rd period.

Q2. Wrtie two achievements of Mendeleev periodic Table?

Answer

Two achievements are

(i)He inverted some elements that were in ascending order to make sure elements with similar behavior come in same group. For example cobalt was put before Nickel.

(ii)Scope for new elements: He gave the name to undiscovered elements like , Eka–aluminium to Galium which was discovered latter.

Q3. State the modern periodic law for classification of elements. How many (a) groups and (b) periods are there in the modern periodic table ?

Answer

"Properties of elements are the periodic function of their atomic number." (a) There are 18 groups. (b) There are 7 periods in the modern periodic table.

Q4. Give an account of the process adopted by Mendeleev for the classification of elements.

Answer

Elements having similar properties were placed in the same group.

Elements were automatically arranged in increasing order of their atomic masses except few discrepancies were there.

Short Answer Questions-II (SAQs-II): 3 Marks

Q1.(i) State the main aim of classifying elements. Which is the more fundamental property of elements that is used in the development of Modern Periodic Table?

(ii) Name and state the law based on this fundamental property. On which side of the periodic table one can find metals, non-metals and metalloids?

Answer

(i) Aim of classification : Systematic study of the known elements based on certain similarities in physical and chemical properties.

(ii) Basic property : Atomic number. Properties of the elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers. (iv) Metals on the left.

(iii) Non—metals on the right, Metalloids at the border of metals and beginning of non-metals.

Q2. (a) Predict which of the following elements will form cation and will form anions?

(i) Na,

(ii) Al,

(iii) Cl,

(iv) O

(b) Name two elements that are inert in nature.

Answer

(a) Cations are Na and Al (Sodium and Aluminium) Anions are Cl and O (Chlorine and Oxygen)

(b) Inert elements are He and Ne (Helium and Neon)

Q3. What are metalloids? (b) Name any four metalloids?

Answer

(a) Elements which are intermediate in properties between metals and non-metals are called metalloids. In periodic table, they act as border between metals and non-metals.

(b) Boron, silicon, germanium and arsenic.

Q4. How does the electronic configuration of an atom relates to its position (period and group) in the modern periodic table ?

(b) Would you place the two isotopes of chlorine, CI - 35 and Cl - 37, in different slots because of their different atomic masses or in the same slot because their chemical properties are the same ? Justify your answer.

Answer

(a) In the periodic table, elements are placed according to their atomic number. If an element has only one shell in its electron configuration, it is placed in the first period. If the element has two shells then it is placed in the second period. and so on. Vertical columns in the periodic table are called groups. There are eighteen groups and in a group all the elements have same number of valence electrons.

(b) No, Cl-35 and Cl-37 will be placed in same slot. The modern periodic table is based on atomic number, not on atomic mass. Since, both Cl-35 and Cl-37 have same atomic number, hence they are placed in same slot.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Notes of Chapter 5 Periodic Classification of Elements

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 6 Life Process (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

Very Short Answer Questions (VSAQs): 1 Mark

Q1. What are different types of tooth?

Answer

Different types of teeth in human are incisors, canines, premolars, and molars.

Q2. Name the enzyme produced by the cells of our stomach in small amount in order to digest butter fat in our food.

Answer

The enzymes called lipase is responsible for digesting butter fat.

Q3. Where does aerobic respiration occur in a cell?

Answer

Aerobic respiration occur in mitochondria of the cell.

Q4. Where is hemoglobin present?

Answer

It is present in Red Blood cells.

Q5. What is principle of Exchange of Gas?

Answer

Diffusion is principle of the exchange of Gases.

Short Answer Questions-I (SAQs-I): 2 Marks

Q1. Why is it necessary to separate oxygenated and deoxygentated blood by mammals and birds?

Answer

Mammals and birds are warm-blooded animals. They constantly use energy to maintain their body temperature. They have higher energy needs and so they require more oxygen to produce energy. Thus, it is important that their oxygenated blood does not get mixed up with deoxygenated blood.

Q2. Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with vaseline. Will this plant remain healthy for long ? Give reasons for your answer?

Answer

This plant will not remain healthy for a long lime because

(a) It will not get oxygen for respiration.

(b) It will not get carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

Q3. The body temperature of some organisms depends on the temperature in the environment. Comment.

Answer

The body temperature of cold-blooded animals depends on the temperature of the environment. Such animals have three chambered heart and can tolerate some mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood e.g., amphibians or many reptiles.

Q4. During one cycle how many times does blood goes to heart of fish and Why?

Answer

Blood goes to heart of fish only one time during one cycle. This happens becaue fish ha sa two chambered heart, the blood is pumped to the gills for oxygenation from where it is passed directly to the rest of the body.

Short Answer Questions-II (SAQs-II): 3 Marks

Q1. In human alimentary canal, name the site of complete digestion of various components of food. Explain the process of digestion.

Answer

Small intestine.

Secretions of liver and pancreas mix with food. Pancreatic enzymes make it alkaline. Bile juice from liver too helps in it. Bile salts break the fat present in the form of large globules into smaller ones, increasing the efficiency of enzyme action. Enzymes like trypsin digests proteins and lipase and breaks down fats. Intestinal juice convert proteins to amino acids, complex carbohydrate to glucose and fats into fatty adds and glycerol.

Q12. (a) List two functions performed by dilute hydrochloric acid in our stomach. (b) Name the raw materials required for photosynthesis.

Answer

(a) (i) Dilute HCl makes the medium acidic.

(ii) It activates the enzyme pepsin.

(b)Carbon di oxide gas and water.

Q3. List the three kinds of blood vessels of human circulatory system and write their functions.

Answer

(i)Arteries: They carry blood away from the heart to various organs of the body.

(ii) Veins: They collect the blood from different organs and bring it back to the heart.

(iii) Capillaries: Exchanges of material between the blood and surrounding cells takes place across the thin walls of capillaries.

Q14. Do the freshwater animals reabsorb water through their excretory system like marine animals? Justify your answer.

Answer

The freshwater animals do not reabsorb water through their excretory system because in case of fresh water animals, large amount of water is taken up through their skin and mouth. The water content of the body is maintained by getting rid of excess water through excretory system. Marine animals need to conserve water that's why water is reabsorbed by excretory system in marine animals.

Long Answer Questions (LAQ's): 5 marks

Q1. (a) Draw a well labelled diagram of human alimentary canal, and label the following parts : (i) Liver (ii) Pancreas (iii) Small intestine (iv) Large intestine (v) Gall Bladder

(b)What is peristaltic movement?

Answer

(b). Peristaltic movement : The lining of alimentary canal has muscles that contract rhythmically in order to push the food forward. These are peristaltic movements.

Q2. How are fats digested in our bodies? Where does this process take place?. Explain

Answer

Digestion of fats takes place in the small intestine. The fats are digested by the digestive enzymes. The fats are present in the form of large globules in the small intestine. Bile juice secreted by the liver is poured in the intestine along with pancreatic juice. The bile salts present in the bile juice emulsify the large globules of fats.

So, by emulsification large globules breakdown into fine globules to provide larger surface area to act upon by the enzymes. Lipase enzyme present in the pancreatic juice causes breakdown of emulsified fats. Glands present in the wall of small intestine secretes intestinal juice which contains lipase enzyme that converts fats into fatty adds and glycerol.

NCERT Solutions of Chapter 6 Life Process

Notes of Chapter 6 Life Process - I

Notes of Chapter 6 Life Process - II

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Extra Questions for Class 9th: Ch 3 Drainage Social Studies (S.St) Important Questions Answer Included

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Study Material and Notes of Ch 4 Climate Class 9th Geography

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Study Material and Notes of Ch 4 Electoral Politics Class 9th Civics

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NCERT Solutions for Class 10th: पाठ 2 - संघवाद (Sanghvad) Loktantrik Rajniti

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Notes of Chapter 1 The Earth in the Solar System Class 6th Geography

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Notes of Chapter 2 Globe: Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6th Geography

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Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

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Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 2 Acids, Bases and Salts (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

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Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 3 Metals and Non-Metals Science

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 3 Metals and Non-Metals (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 4 Carbon and its Compounds Science

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 4 Carbon and its Compounds (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 5 Periodic Classification of Elements Science

Extra Questions for Class 10th: Ch 5 Periodic Classification of Elements (Science) Important Questions Answer Included

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